1. In a certain code ROPE is written as $3%6 and RITE is written as $4#6. How is PORT written
in that code?
(1) %4$#
(2) $3%#
(3) $64%
(4) %3$#
(5) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT, each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said 'She is the only grad daughter of my grandmother's
daughter'. How is the girl in photograph related to Nikita?
(1) Sister
(2) Niece/ daughter
(3) Aunt
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to the group?
(1) Pineapple
(2) Guava
(3) Grapes
(4) Papaya
(5) Pear
5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels
are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end?
(1) S
(2) B
(3) A
(4) K
(5) None of these
6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR written in that code?
(1) DIBJS
(2) SBJID
(3) SHBGD
(4) SJBID
(5) None of these
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to the group?
(1) FH
(2) KM
(3) PR
(4) CE
(5) JM
8. If ' P Q' means 'P is wife of Q', 'P+Q' means 'P is father of Q' and 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q'
then in G H +R D, how is G related to D?
(1) Cannot be determined
(2) Mother
(3) Niece
(4) Aunt
(5) None of these
9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will
remain at the same position?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to the group?
(1) 17
(2) 19
(3) 23
(4) 29
(5) 27
11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters AEHT, using each letter only
once?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
12. If '' means 'x', $ means '+', # means ' ' and '©' means '-' then what is the value of
360 # 24$ 56« 5© 48?
(1) 253
(2) 242
(3) 247
(4) 285
(5) None of these
13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow, yellow means red and red means
white then what is the colour of turmeric?
(1) green
(2) yellow
(3) red
(4) pink
(5) None of these
14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the tenth and the
eleventh letters of the word PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second letter of that
word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one word
can be formed your answer is Y.
(1) A
(2) E
(3) L
(4) X
(5) Y
15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of Suresh who is tenth from the
left end. Nisha is second to the right of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total
how many children are there in the row?
(1) 19
(2) 20
(3) 21
(4) 18
(5) None of these
Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols ©, #, «, $ and @ are used with different meanings
as follows:
'A © B' means 'A is smaller than B'
'A # B' means 'A is either smaller than or equal to B'
'A « B' means 'A is greater than B'
'A $ B' means 'A is either greater than or equal to B'
'A @ B' means 'A is neither smaller than nor greater than B'
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the
two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
16. Statements: V#S, S©L, L©J
Conclusions: I. V © L
II. S © J
17. Statements: M#R, R©J, J#H
Conclusions: I. M #H
II. R © H
18. Statements: H$F, F@G, G«M
Conclusions: I. H «M
II. H «G
19. Statements: R©J, J «T,,T # L
Conclusions: I. R @ T
II. J @ l
20. Statements: W@T, T$K, K «F
Conclusions: I. W $ K
II. W @ K
Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which
of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
21. Statements:
Some pens are books.
All books are pencils.
All pencils are jars.
Conclusions:
I. All books are jars.
II. Some pens are pencils.
22. Statements:
Some bowls are spoons
Some spoons are forks
All forks are plates.
Conclusions:
I. Some bowls are forks.
II. Some spoons are plates.
23. Statements:
Some bottles are jars.
All jars are buckets.
All buckets are tanks.
Conclusions:
I. All jars are tanks.
II. Some buckets are tanks.
24. Statements:
Some phones are mobiles.
Some mobiles are computers.
Some computers are keys.
Conclusions:
I. Some phones are keys.
II. Some computes are phones.
25. Statements:
All papers are files.
Some files are folders.
All folders are bags.
Conclusions:
I. Some files are bags.
II. Some papers are folders.
Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita?
I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita.
II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita.
27. What is the code for 'Play' in the code language?
I. In the code language 'play and dance' is written as 'ka to pe'
II. In the code language enjoy the dance' is written as 'pe jo ra'.
28. How many children are there in the class?
I. Vandana's rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is twenty fifth from the bottom.
II. Nandini's rank is seventeenth from the top.
29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta?
I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than Maya and Geeta.
II. Neeta is not the tallest.
30. How many sons does Ramesh have?
I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh.
II. R is brother of H.
Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol
arrangement . Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow:
5 D G E « 7 9 $ F 1 6 R % L I A J 3 B # 4 @ K P 8 U M 2
31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) $9F
(2) R6%
(3) 8PU
(4) #B4
(5) 3BJ
32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement which element will be third to the
left of thirteenth from the left?
(1) L
(2) R
(3) 6
(4) I
(5) None of these
33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
arrangement?
EDH 9 « 7 I$F ?
(1) 6RI
(2) %R6
(3) R16
(4) %6R
(5) None of these
34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right end if all the numbers are
removed from the above arrangement?
(1) K
(2) @
(3) P
(4) #
(5) None of these
35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a vowel?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of following information. Study it
carefully and answer the questions.
Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. J is
second to the right of P who is third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits
between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N.
36. Who is to the immediate left of L?
(1) Q
(2) O
(3) K
(4) N
(5) None of these
37. Who is to the immediate left of K?
(1) N
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
38. Which of the following is the correct position of N?
(1) Second to the right of K
(2) To the immediate left of K
(3) To the immediate right of M
(4) To the immediate right of K
(5) None of these
39. Who is third to the right of P?
(1) L
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) N
(5) None of these
40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first person sitting between the other two?
(1) PJO
(2) OPJ
(3) OPM
(4) MPO
(5) None of these
Directions (41-50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on
the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
ANSWERS
1. (4), 2. (3), 3. (2), 4. (3), 5. (2), 6. (4), 7. (5), 8. (2), 9. (4), 10. (5)
11. (3), 12. (3), 13. (3), 14. (5), 15. (1), 16. (5), 17. (2), 18. (1), 19. (4), 20. (1)
21. (5), 22. (2), 23. (5), 24. (4), 25. (1), 26. (3), 27. (4), 28. (5), 29. (5), 30. (5)
31. (5), 32. (2), 33. (4), 34. (1), 35. (2), 36. (5), 37. (3), 38. (4), 39. (1), 40. (2)
41. (3), 42. (4), 43. (1), 44. (5), 45. (1), 46. (4), 47. (5), 48. (1), 49. (2), 50. (3)
Showing posts with label Question Papers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Question Papers. Show all posts
Monday, July 18, 2011
Andhra Bank Clerk Recruitment: Solved Previous Year Question Paper 2007 (II Numerical Ability)
Directions (51-75): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions ?
51. 832.456-539.982-123.321=?
(1) 196.153
(2) 149.153
(3) 169.153
(4) 176.135
(5) None of these
52. ? x 19 = 7828
(1) 411
(2) 412
(3) 413
(4) 414
(5) 415
53. 236.69+356.74 = 393.39 + ?
(1) 200.04
(2) 201.04
(3) 200.14
(4) 202.14
(5) 203.04
54. 734 / ? = 91.75
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 10
(5) None of these
55. x (35 x 15 x 10) / (25 x 2) = ?
(1) 105
(2) 115
(3) 70
(4) 35
(5) None of these
56. 5938+4456+2891 = ?
(1) 15255
(2) 14285
(3) 13285
(4) 12385
(5) None of these
57. 859.05 + 428.89+663.17=?
(1) 1585.91
(2) 1286.94
(3) 1950.02
(4) 1950.11
(5) 1951.01
58. 434 x 645=?
(1) 27840
(2) 297930
(3) 279903
(4) 279930
(5) None of these
59. 7 x ? =29.05
(1) 4.05
(2) 4.15
(3) 3.95
(4) 4.28
(5) None of these
60. 725 / 25 - 13 = ?
(1) 16
(2) 29
(3) 12
(4) 18
(5) None of these
61. (558 x 45) / (18 x 45) = ?
(1) 314
(2) 313
(3) 312
(4) 311
(5) None of these
62. 806 / 26 =?
(1) 30
(2) 32
(3) 34
(4) 36
(5) None of these
63. 559 + 995 = ? x 16
(1) 92.05
(2) 95.25
(3) 93.15
(4) 94.35
(5) None of these
64. ((337 +146) x 8)=?
(1) 3884
(2) 1515
(3) 3864
(4) 1505
(5) 3846
65.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
66. 4758-2782-1430=?
(1) 356
(2) 396
(3) 486
(4) 546
(5) None of these
67. 9.1 x 7.5 x 6.2 =?
(1) 423.25
(2) 68.25
(3) 593.775
(4) 472.5
(5) None of these
68.
(1) 43
(2) 45
(3) 47
(4) 49
(5) 51
69.
(1) 1444
(2) 1442
(3) 1448
(4) 1456
(5) 1460
70.
(1) 25
(2) 64
(3) 8
(4) 7.5
(5) None of these
71. 248 of +110 of 20% = ?
(1) 192
(2) 202
(3) 212
(4) 239
(5) 242
72.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
73.
(1) 1511
(2) 1531
(3) 1515
(4) 1553
(5) 1521
74. 484 of + 366 of = ?
(1) 663
(2) 844
(3) 668
(4) 848
(5) 666
75. 280% of 460 =?
(1) 1188
(2) 1284
(3) 1288
(4) 1280
(5) None of these
76. Which of the following is equal to 30 x 246?
(1) 118 x 13+209 x 42
(2) 174 x 10+222 x 19
(3) 173 x 12+221 x 24
(4) 169 x 16+167 x 50
(5) None of these
77. The cost of 9 kgs. of sugar is Rs. 279. What is the cost of 153 kgs. of sugar?
(1) Rs. 3.377
(2) Rs. 4.473
(3) Rs. 4.377
(4) Rs. 4.743
(5) Rs. 4.347
78. A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph. and reaches its destination in 7 hours. What is the
distance covered by the bus?
(1) 343 km
(2) 283 km
(3) 353 km
(4) 245 km
(5) 340 km
79. th of th of a number is 82. What is the number?
(1) 410
(2) 820
(3) 420
(4) 220
(5) None of these
80. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 20
(2) 21
(3) 22
(4) 23
(5) None of these
81. The sum of three consecutive integers is 39. Which of the following is the largest among the
three?
(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 13
(4) 16
(5) None of these
82. Find the average of the following set of scores:
118, 186, 138, 204, 175, 229
(1) 148
(2) 152
(3) 156
(4) 160
(5) 175
83. A banana costs Rs. 2.25 and an apple costs Rs. 3.00. What will be the total cost of 4 dozen of
bananas and 3 dozen of apples?
(1) Rs. 216
(2) Rs.108
(3) Rs. 189
(4) Rs. 225
(5) Rs. 162
84. How many pieces of 8.6 metres long cloth can be cut out of a length of 455.8 metres cloth?
(1) 43
(2) 48
(3) 55
(4) 53
(5) 62
85. The product of two successive numbers is 3192. What is the smallest number?
(1) 59
(2) 58
(3) 57
(4) 56
(5) None of these
86. What is 184 times 156?
(1) 28704
(2) 29704
(3) 30604
(4) 27604
(5) None of these
87. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
question?
5989 48 11=?
(1) 1375
(2) 1370
(3) 1372
(4) 1368
(5) 1365
88. If an amount of Rs. 15,487 is divided equally among 76 students, approximately how much
amount will each student get?
(1) Rs. 206
(2) Rs. 210
(3) Rs. 204
(4) Rs. 218
(5) Rs. 212
89. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
6417 5704 4991 4278 3565 2852 ?
(1) 2408
(2) 2426
(3) 7310
(4) 7130
(5) 2139
90. Rinku and Pooja started a business initially with Rs. 5,100 and Rs. 6,600 respectively. If the
total profit is Rs. 2.730 what is Rinku's share in the profit?
(1) Rs. 1,530
(2) Rs. 1,540
(3) Rs. 1,200
(4) Rs. 1,180
(5) None of these
91. 25% of the total cost of a plot of area 280 sq. feet is Rs. 1,32,370. What is the rate per sq. ft. of
the plot?
(1) Rs. 2,091
(2) Rs. 1,981
(3) Rs. 1,991
(4) Rs. 1,891
(5) None of these
92. If the difference between a number and one fifth of it is 84, what is the number?
(1) 95
(2) 100
(3) 105
(4) 108
(5) 112
93. The respective ratio of the ages of Richa and Shelly is 5: 8. The ratio of their ages 10 years
hence would be 7: 10 respectively. What is the present age of Shelly?
(1) 45 years
(2) 40 years
(3) 35 years
(4) 30 years
(5) 25 years
94. A student scores 64% marks in 6 papers of 150 marks each. He scores 25% of his total
obtained marks in Hindi and English together. How much is his total score for both these papers?
(1) 120
(2) 124
(3) 140
(4) 144
(5) 150
95. When the original price of toy was increased by 25%, the price of one dozen toys was Rs. 300.
What was the original price of one toy?
(1) Rs. 24
(2) Rs. 29
(3) Rs. 30
(4) Rs. 15
(5) Rs. 20
96. If 3x + 5y = 44 and 10x -2y = 16, what is the value of x?
(1) 7
(2) 3
(3) 5.5
(4) 6.5
(5) None of these
97. 15 persons complete a job in 3 days. How many days will 10 persons take to complete the
same job?
(1) 2
(2) 5
(3)
(4)
(5)
98. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 25% more than the cost price. If a
customer paid Rs. 11,500 for a television set, then what was the cost price of the television set?
(1) Rs. 9,200
(2) Rs. 7,200
(3) Rs. 8,600
(4) Rs. 9,800
(5) Rs. 10,000
99. Sumit obtained a total of 1012 marks out of 1150 in an examination. What is his percentage in
the examination?
(1) 86
(2) 88
(3) 84
(4) 90
(5) None of these
100. What should replace both the question marks in the following equation?
(1) 126
(2) 124
(3) 130
(4) 132
(5) 136
ANSWERS
51. (3), 52. (2), 53. (1), 54. (1), 55. (1), 56. (3), 57. (4), 58. (4), 59. (2), 60. (1)
61. (5), 62. (5), 63. (2), 64. (3), 65. (2), 66. (4), 67. (1), 68. (3), 69. (1), 70. (4)
71. (4), 72. (2), 73. (5), 74. (3), 75. (3), 76. (3), 77. (4), 78. (1), 79. (2), 80. (2)
81. (5), 82. (5), 83. (1), 84. (4), 85. (4), 86. (1), 87. (3), 88. (3), 89. (5), 90. (5)
91. (4), 92. (3), 93. (2), 94. (4), 95. (5), 96. (2), 97. (5), 98. (1), 99. (2), 100. (1)
questions ?
51. 832.456-539.982-123.321=?
(1) 196.153
(2) 149.153
(3) 169.153
(4) 176.135
(5) None of these
52. ? x 19 = 7828
(1) 411
(2) 412
(3) 413
(4) 414
(5) 415
53. 236.69+356.74 = 393.39 + ?
(1) 200.04
(2) 201.04
(3) 200.14
(4) 202.14
(5) 203.04
54. 734 / ? = 91.75
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 10
(5) None of these
55. x (35 x 15 x 10) / (25 x 2) = ?
(1) 105
(2) 115
(3) 70
(4) 35
(5) None of these
56. 5938+4456+2891 = ?
(1) 15255
(2) 14285
(3) 13285
(4) 12385
(5) None of these
57. 859.05 + 428.89+663.17=?
(1) 1585.91
(2) 1286.94
(3) 1950.02
(4) 1950.11
(5) 1951.01
58. 434 x 645=?
(1) 27840
(2) 297930
(3) 279903
(4) 279930
(5) None of these
59. 7 x ? =29.05
(1) 4.05
(2) 4.15
(3) 3.95
(4) 4.28
(5) None of these
60. 725 / 25 - 13 = ?
(1) 16
(2) 29
(3) 12
(4) 18
(5) None of these
61. (558 x 45) / (18 x 45) = ?
(1) 314
(2) 313
(3) 312
(4) 311
(5) None of these
62. 806 / 26 =?
(1) 30
(2) 32
(3) 34
(4) 36
(5) None of these
63. 559 + 995 = ? x 16
(1) 92.05
(2) 95.25
(3) 93.15
(4) 94.35
(5) None of these
64. ((337 +146) x 8)=?
(1) 3884
(2) 1515
(3) 3864
(4) 1505
(5) 3846
65.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
66. 4758-2782-1430=?
(1) 356
(2) 396
(3) 486
(4) 546
(5) None of these
67. 9.1 x 7.5 x 6.2 =?
(1) 423.25
(2) 68.25
(3) 593.775
(4) 472.5
(5) None of these
68.
(1) 43
(2) 45
(3) 47
(4) 49
(5) 51
69.
(1) 1444
(2) 1442
(3) 1448
(4) 1456
(5) 1460
70.
(1) 25
(2) 64
(3) 8
(4) 7.5
(5) None of these
71. 248 of +110 of 20% = ?
(1) 192
(2) 202
(3) 212
(4) 239
(5) 242
72.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
73.
(1) 1511
(2) 1531
(3) 1515
(4) 1553
(5) 1521
74. 484 of + 366 of = ?
(1) 663
(2) 844
(3) 668
(4) 848
(5) 666
75. 280% of 460 =?
(1) 1188
(2) 1284
(3) 1288
(4) 1280
(5) None of these
76. Which of the following is equal to 30 x 246?
(1) 118 x 13+209 x 42
(2) 174 x 10+222 x 19
(3) 173 x 12+221 x 24
(4) 169 x 16+167 x 50
(5) None of these
77. The cost of 9 kgs. of sugar is Rs. 279. What is the cost of 153 kgs. of sugar?
(1) Rs. 3.377
(2) Rs. 4.473
(3) Rs. 4.377
(4) Rs. 4.743
(5) Rs. 4.347
78. A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph. and reaches its destination in 7 hours. What is the
distance covered by the bus?
(1) 343 km
(2) 283 km
(3) 353 km
(4) 245 km
(5) 340 km
79. th of th of a number is 82. What is the number?
(1) 410
(2) 820
(3) 420
(4) 220
(5) None of these
80. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 20
(2) 21
(3) 22
(4) 23
(5) None of these
81. The sum of three consecutive integers is 39. Which of the following is the largest among the
three?
(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 13
(4) 16
(5) None of these
82. Find the average of the following set of scores:
118, 186, 138, 204, 175, 229
(1) 148
(2) 152
(3) 156
(4) 160
(5) 175
83. A banana costs Rs. 2.25 and an apple costs Rs. 3.00. What will be the total cost of 4 dozen of
bananas and 3 dozen of apples?
(1) Rs. 216
(2) Rs.108
(3) Rs. 189
(4) Rs. 225
(5) Rs. 162
84. How many pieces of 8.6 metres long cloth can be cut out of a length of 455.8 metres cloth?
(1) 43
(2) 48
(3) 55
(4) 53
(5) 62
85. The product of two successive numbers is 3192. What is the smallest number?
(1) 59
(2) 58
(3) 57
(4) 56
(5) None of these
86. What is 184 times 156?
(1) 28704
(2) 29704
(3) 30604
(4) 27604
(5) None of these
87. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
question?
5989 48 11=?
(1) 1375
(2) 1370
(3) 1372
(4) 1368
(5) 1365
88. If an amount of Rs. 15,487 is divided equally among 76 students, approximately how much
amount will each student get?
(1) Rs. 206
(2) Rs. 210
(3) Rs. 204
(4) Rs. 218
(5) Rs. 212
89. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
6417 5704 4991 4278 3565 2852 ?
(1) 2408
(2) 2426
(3) 7310
(4) 7130
(5) 2139
90. Rinku and Pooja started a business initially with Rs. 5,100 and Rs. 6,600 respectively. If the
total profit is Rs. 2.730 what is Rinku's share in the profit?
(1) Rs. 1,530
(2) Rs. 1,540
(3) Rs. 1,200
(4) Rs. 1,180
(5) None of these
91. 25% of the total cost of a plot of area 280 sq. feet is Rs. 1,32,370. What is the rate per sq. ft. of
the plot?
(1) Rs. 2,091
(2) Rs. 1,981
(3) Rs. 1,991
(4) Rs. 1,891
(5) None of these
92. If the difference between a number and one fifth of it is 84, what is the number?
(1) 95
(2) 100
(3) 105
(4) 108
(5) 112
93. The respective ratio of the ages of Richa and Shelly is 5: 8. The ratio of their ages 10 years
hence would be 7: 10 respectively. What is the present age of Shelly?
(1) 45 years
(2) 40 years
(3) 35 years
(4) 30 years
(5) 25 years
94. A student scores 64% marks in 6 papers of 150 marks each. He scores 25% of his total
obtained marks in Hindi and English together. How much is his total score for both these papers?
(1) 120
(2) 124
(3) 140
(4) 144
(5) 150
95. When the original price of toy was increased by 25%, the price of one dozen toys was Rs. 300.
What was the original price of one toy?
(1) Rs. 24
(2) Rs. 29
(3) Rs. 30
(4) Rs. 15
(5) Rs. 20
96. If 3x + 5y = 44 and 10x -2y = 16, what is the value of x?
(1) 7
(2) 3
(3) 5.5
(4) 6.5
(5) None of these
97. 15 persons complete a job in 3 days. How many days will 10 persons take to complete the
same job?
(1) 2
(2) 5
(3)
(4)
(5)
98. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 25% more than the cost price. If a
customer paid Rs. 11,500 for a television set, then what was the cost price of the television set?
(1) Rs. 9,200
(2) Rs. 7,200
(3) Rs. 8,600
(4) Rs. 9,800
(5) Rs. 10,000
99. Sumit obtained a total of 1012 marks out of 1150 in an examination. What is his percentage in
the examination?
(1) 86
(2) 88
(3) 84
(4) 90
(5) None of these
100. What should replace both the question marks in the following equation?
(1) 126
(2) 124
(3) 130
(4) 132
(5) 136
ANSWERS
51. (3), 52. (2), 53. (1), 54. (1), 55. (1), 56. (3), 57. (4), 58. (4), 59. (2), 60. (1)
61. (5), 62. (5), 63. (2), 64. (3), 65. (2), 66. (4), 67. (1), 68. (3), 69. (1), 70. (4)
71. (4), 72. (2), 73. (5), 74. (3), 75. (3), 76. (3), 77. (4), 78. (1), 79. (2), 80. (2)
81. (5), 82. (5), 83. (1), 84. (4), 85. (4), 86. (1), 87. (3), 88. (3), 89. (5), 90. (5)
91. (4), 92. (3), 93. (2), 94. (4), 95. (5), 96. (2), 97. (5), 98. (1), 99. (2), 100. (1)
Andhra Bank Clerk Recruitment: Solved Previous YearQuestion Paper 2007 (IV English)
Directions (151-165): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
For many years, the continent Africa remained unexplored and unknown. The main reason was
the inaccessibility to its interior region due to dense forests, wild -life savage tribals, deserts and
barren solid hills. Many people tried to explore the land could not survive the dangers. David
Living- stone is among those brave few who not only explored part of Africa but also lived among
the tribals bringing them near to social milieu. While others explored with the idea of expanding
their respective empires. Livingstone did so to explore its vast and mysterious hinterland, rivers
and lakes. He was primarily a religious man and a medical practitioner who tried to help
mankind with it.
Livingstone was born in Scotland and was educated to become a doctor and priest. His
exploration started at the beginning of the year 1852. He explored an unknown river in Western
Luanda. However, he was reduced to a skeleton during four years of traveling. By this time, he
had become famous and when he returned to England for convalescing, entire London, along
with Queen Victoria turned to welcome him. After a few days, he returned to Africa.
He discovered the origin of the River Nile in 1866. He again suffered many discomforts. He
became too sick and could not even walk. He lost contact with rest of the world that grew anxious
to know his whereabouts. Ultimately, it was Stanley, the American journalist, who found him
after many efforts, but Livingstone had died in a tribal village in 1873. His body was brought to
London and buried in West-minister with full honour.
151. Livingstone deserves credit for which of the following?
(1) For expanding his empire
(2) For enjoying the wild life of the continent
(3) For exploring part of Africa and living among the tribals
(4) For quenching his thirst for living in the company of nature
(5) None of these
152. What was the impact of four -year travelling on Livingstone?
(1) He could enjoy a social life among tribals' society
(2) He derived satisfaction with the exploration of an unknown river
(3) He derived satisfaction as he became very famous
(4) It badly affected his health
(5) None of these
153. Which of the following shows that Livingstone had become very famous?
(1) Queen Victoria along with the people of London had come to meet him
(2) Queen Victoria arranged for the medical expenses
(3) The tribals were grateful to him for his medical expenses
(4) He was assigned the task of a priest although he was a medical professional
(5) None of these
154. Why were people not aware to the existence of Africa?
(1) It was inaccessible due to oceanic reefs
(2) Its territory was covered with dense forests
(3) People outside the continent were chased away by native tribals
(4) Explorers were afraid of the risks involved
(5) None of these
155. Livingstone can best be described by which of the following?
(1) A person with an urge for exploration of unknown parts of the world
(2) A person with religious mindset
(3) A social reformer
(4) A warmhearted medical practitioner
(5) A famous priest popular among the British
156. Which of the following was/ were explored by Livingstone?
(a) A river in Western Luanda
(b) Scotland
(c) The origin of river Nile
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a) only
(5) (b) only
157. The American journalist Stanley can be credited for which of the following?
(a) Performing the last rites of Livingstone's dead body.
(b) Relentless efforts for finding out the whereabouts of Living stone.
(c) The anxiety to explore undiscovered parts of the world.
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (b) only
(5) (c) only
158. Livingstone became too sick to walk and, as a result
(a) People in the world lost contact with him
(b) His whereabouts were not known.
(c) American journalist, Stanley could not locate him despite many efforts.
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (c) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
(5) None of these
159. In what way Livingstone's exploration efforts were different from those of others?
(1) Livingstone's exploration was restricted only to unknown rivers, whereas others explored dense
forests
(2) Others explored with selfish motives; Livingstone explored to know the mysterious parts of the
world
(3) Others explored new parts of the world for wealth, but Livingstone did so for religious purposes
(4) Being a medical practitioner he tied to explore medicines; others did for tribal population
(5) None of these
Directions (160-162): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
160. REST
(1) remainder
(2) relax
(3) respite
(4) discovery
(5) most
161. EXPLORATION
(1) execution
(2) cultivation
(3) foundation
(4) discovery
(5) assimilation
162. TURNED
(1) rotated
(2) twisted
(3) spinned
(4) revolved
(5) arrived
Directions (163-165): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
163. DENSE
(1) crowed
(2) dark
(3) sparse
(4) transparent
(5) opaque
164. BARREN
(1) uncultivated
(2) fertile
(3) forest
(4) unlevelled
(5) marshy
165. VAST
(1) miniature
(2) magnified
(3) enormous
(4) gigantic
(5) small
Directions (166-175): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If
there is no error, the answer is (5), i.e. 'No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
166. The interrogation made by (1) / him hardly yield (2)/ any concrete conclusion (3)/ about the
crime. (4)/ No error (5)
167. What you had said (1)/ about the employees was (2)/ found to be correct (3)/ but it could not
be proved. (4)/ No error (5)
168. When you had started (1)/ the work, you should (2)/ ensure that you (3)/ concentrate on it.
(4)/ No error (5)
169. If you have good (1)/ control over breathing (2)/ you can float (3)/ on water effortlessly.
(4) /No error (5)
170. The way to the fort (1)/ was too difficult that (2)/ we could not reach (3)/ the farthest point.
(4)/ No error (5)
171. When we heard the name (1)/ of our leader uttered (2)/ respectfully by the foreigners (3)/ we
felt pride of him. (4)/ No error (5)
172. It goes to his credit (1)/that he was a clean man (2)/ in politics as well as (3)/ his person
dealings. (4)/ No error (5)
173. His strictly discipline (1)/ had made him (2)/ very unpopular among (3)/all the employees.
(4)/ No error (5)
174. Jamshedji knew that (1)/ an industrial revolution can (2)/ only brought in the country (3)/ by
setting up iron and steel industry. (4)/ No error (5)
175. He being the oldest son (1)/ has requested us (2)/ to look after the problem (3)/ faced by the
father. (4)/ No error (5)
Directions (176-180): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to
make the sentence meaningfully complete.
176. There is no need of any proof because everything is very________.
(1) obvious
(2) uncertain
(3) definite
(4) regular
(5) essential
177. Onions grow in ____ in this part and hence they are always very cheap here.
(1) demand
(2) abundance
(3) peak
(4) excessive
(5) dearth
178. Normally he is very ______ in his behaviour, but on that occasion he behaved very
aggressively.
(1) rude
(2) obedient
(3) docile
(4) intolerant
(5) immature
179. If you ___ in advance, you will get some concession.
(1) buy
(2) work
(3) submit
(4) pay
(5) decide
180. I have in my album photographs of some of my very close friends __ I can never forget.
(1) that
(2) who
(3) whom
(4) which
(5) those
Directions (181-185): In each question below four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and
(4) have been printed of which, one may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the
answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (5) i.e. "All Correct" as the answer.
181. (1) Discloser
(2) Indifference
(3) Cooperative
(4) Irreversible
(5) All Correct
182. (1) Repetition
(2) Conservative
(3) Acceptability
(4) Innovative
(5) All Correct
183. (1) Vigilant
(2) Judilee
(3) Receptive
(4) Possessive
(5) All Correct
184. (1) Decisive
(2) Destructive
(3) Accommodation
(4) Pioneer
(5) All Correct
185. (1) Compromising
(2) Enthusiasm
(3) Dislocation
(4) Immigration
(5) All Correct
Directions (186-190): Rearrange the following sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) They are not bothered to break rules of the society, laws and even relations.
(b) But one thing is certain. They will one day realize that this importance needs to be shifted.
(c) People are generally ready to go to any extent to possess these materialistic aspects.
(d) All this shift will certainly be in favour of good and socially desirable values.
(e) This is all because of the undue importance attached to these aspects.
(f) Money, comfort, luxuries have dominated all other considerations these days.
186. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
187. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
188. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
189. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
190. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
Directions (191-200): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against, each five words are
suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Dr. Swaminathan is not only a (191) scientist but also an able administrator and an (192)
organiser of projects. He has served the country by (193) many significant positions. His
researches in the field of agriculture and his efforts for (194) the quality of wheat in particular,
have (195) him laurels. Dr. Borlogue has highly (196) his works.
Dr. Swaminathan, is a honorary member of 14 important International Scientific Societies/
Councils including the Royal Society of London. Many Universities have (197) doctorate on him.
In 1972, he was awarded "Padma Bhushan", Dr. Swaminathan (198) in work, not in popularity
and that is the (199) he never came into so much (200).
191. (1) famous
(2) magnificent
(3) decisive
(4) renewed
(5) glorious
192. (1) insecure
(2) absolute
(3) overt
(4) incompetent
(5) efficient
193. (1) creating
(2) developing
(3) encouraging
(4) holding
(5) appointing
194. (1) magnifying
(2) growing
(3) improving
(4) judging
(5) deciding
195. (1) prospered
(2) won
(3) acquired
(4) made
(5) donated
196. (1) analysed
(2) appreciated
(3) cooperated
(4) recommended
(5) curtailed
197. (1) given
(2) registered
(3) conferred
(4) passed
(5) dictated
198. (1) aspires
(2) enjoys
(3) dedicates
(4) believes
(5) continues
199. (1) reason
(2) aim
(3) perspective
(4) way
(5) essence
200. (1) fame
(2) respect
(3) reputation
(4) disregard
(5) limelight
ANSWERS
151. (3), 152. (4), 153. (1), 154. (2), 155. (1), 156. (3), 157. (4), 158. (5), 159. (2), 160. (1)
161. (4), 162. (5), 163. (3), 164. (2), 165. (5), 166. (2), 167. (5), 168. (1), 169. (2), 170. (2)
171. (4), 172. (4), 173. (1), 174. (3), 175. (2), 176. (1), 177. (2), 178. (3), 179. (4), 180. (3)
181. (1), 182. (1), 183. (3), 184. (5), 185. (2), 186. (2), 187. (3), 188. (5), 189. (1), 190. (4)
191. (1), 192. (5), 193. (4), 194. (3), 195. (2), 196. (2), 197. (3), 198. (4), 199. (1), 200. (5)
given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
For many years, the continent Africa remained unexplored and unknown. The main reason was
the inaccessibility to its interior region due to dense forests, wild -life savage tribals, deserts and
barren solid hills. Many people tried to explore the land could not survive the dangers. David
Living- stone is among those brave few who not only explored part of Africa but also lived among
the tribals bringing them near to social milieu. While others explored with the idea of expanding
their respective empires. Livingstone did so to explore its vast and mysterious hinterland, rivers
and lakes. He was primarily a religious man and a medical practitioner who tried to help
mankind with it.
Livingstone was born in Scotland and was educated to become a doctor and priest. His
exploration started at the beginning of the year 1852. He explored an unknown river in Western
Luanda. However, he was reduced to a skeleton during four years of traveling. By this time, he
had become famous and when he returned to England for convalescing, entire London, along
with Queen Victoria turned to welcome him. After a few days, he returned to Africa.
He discovered the origin of the River Nile in 1866. He again suffered many discomforts. He
became too sick and could not even walk. He lost contact with rest of the world that grew anxious
to know his whereabouts. Ultimately, it was Stanley, the American journalist, who found him
after many efforts, but Livingstone had died in a tribal village in 1873. His body was brought to
London and buried in West-minister with full honour.
151. Livingstone deserves credit for which of the following?
(1) For expanding his empire
(2) For enjoying the wild life of the continent
(3) For exploring part of Africa and living among the tribals
(4) For quenching his thirst for living in the company of nature
(5) None of these
152. What was the impact of four -year travelling on Livingstone?
(1) He could enjoy a social life among tribals' society
(2) He derived satisfaction with the exploration of an unknown river
(3) He derived satisfaction as he became very famous
(4) It badly affected his health
(5) None of these
153. Which of the following shows that Livingstone had become very famous?
(1) Queen Victoria along with the people of London had come to meet him
(2) Queen Victoria arranged for the medical expenses
(3) The tribals were grateful to him for his medical expenses
(4) He was assigned the task of a priest although he was a medical professional
(5) None of these
154. Why were people not aware to the existence of Africa?
(1) It was inaccessible due to oceanic reefs
(2) Its territory was covered with dense forests
(3) People outside the continent were chased away by native tribals
(4) Explorers were afraid of the risks involved
(5) None of these
155. Livingstone can best be described by which of the following?
(1) A person with an urge for exploration of unknown parts of the world
(2) A person with religious mindset
(3) A social reformer
(4) A warmhearted medical practitioner
(5) A famous priest popular among the British
156. Which of the following was/ were explored by Livingstone?
(a) A river in Western Luanda
(b) Scotland
(c) The origin of river Nile
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a) only
(5) (b) only
157. The American journalist Stanley can be credited for which of the following?
(a) Performing the last rites of Livingstone's dead body.
(b) Relentless efforts for finding out the whereabouts of Living stone.
(c) The anxiety to explore undiscovered parts of the world.
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (b) only
(5) (c) only
158. Livingstone became too sick to walk and, as a result
(a) People in the world lost contact with him
(b) His whereabouts were not known.
(c) American journalist, Stanley could not locate him despite many efforts.
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (c) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
(5) None of these
159. In what way Livingstone's exploration efforts were different from those of others?
(1) Livingstone's exploration was restricted only to unknown rivers, whereas others explored dense
forests
(2) Others explored with selfish motives; Livingstone explored to know the mysterious parts of the
world
(3) Others explored new parts of the world for wealth, but Livingstone did so for religious purposes
(4) Being a medical practitioner he tied to explore medicines; others did for tribal population
(5) None of these
Directions (160-162): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
160. REST
(1) remainder
(2) relax
(3) respite
(4) discovery
(5) most
161. EXPLORATION
(1) execution
(2) cultivation
(3) foundation
(4) discovery
(5) assimilation
162. TURNED
(1) rotated
(2) twisted
(3) spinned
(4) revolved
(5) arrived
Directions (163-165): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
163. DENSE
(1) crowed
(2) dark
(3) sparse
(4) transparent
(5) opaque
164. BARREN
(1) uncultivated
(2) fertile
(3) forest
(4) unlevelled
(5) marshy
165. VAST
(1) miniature
(2) magnified
(3) enormous
(4) gigantic
(5) small
Directions (166-175): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If
there is no error, the answer is (5), i.e. 'No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
166. The interrogation made by (1) / him hardly yield (2)/ any concrete conclusion (3)/ about the
crime. (4)/ No error (5)
167. What you had said (1)/ about the employees was (2)/ found to be correct (3)/ but it could not
be proved. (4)/ No error (5)
168. When you had started (1)/ the work, you should (2)/ ensure that you (3)/ concentrate on it.
(4)/ No error (5)
169. If you have good (1)/ control over breathing (2)/ you can float (3)/ on water effortlessly.
(4) /No error (5)
170. The way to the fort (1)/ was too difficult that (2)/ we could not reach (3)/ the farthest point.
(4)/ No error (5)
171. When we heard the name (1)/ of our leader uttered (2)/ respectfully by the foreigners (3)/ we
felt pride of him. (4)/ No error (5)
172. It goes to his credit (1)/that he was a clean man (2)/ in politics as well as (3)/ his person
dealings. (4)/ No error (5)
173. His strictly discipline (1)/ had made him (2)/ very unpopular among (3)/all the employees.
(4)/ No error (5)
174. Jamshedji knew that (1)/ an industrial revolution can (2)/ only brought in the country (3)/ by
setting up iron and steel industry. (4)/ No error (5)
175. He being the oldest son (1)/ has requested us (2)/ to look after the problem (3)/ faced by the
father. (4)/ No error (5)
Directions (176-180): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to
make the sentence meaningfully complete.
176. There is no need of any proof because everything is very________.
(1) obvious
(2) uncertain
(3) definite
(4) regular
(5) essential
177. Onions grow in ____ in this part and hence they are always very cheap here.
(1) demand
(2) abundance
(3) peak
(4) excessive
(5) dearth
178. Normally he is very ______ in his behaviour, but on that occasion he behaved very
aggressively.
(1) rude
(2) obedient
(3) docile
(4) intolerant
(5) immature
179. If you ___ in advance, you will get some concession.
(1) buy
(2) work
(3) submit
(4) pay
(5) decide
180. I have in my album photographs of some of my very close friends __ I can never forget.
(1) that
(2) who
(3) whom
(4) which
(5) those
Directions (181-185): In each question below four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and
(4) have been printed of which, one may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the
answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (5) i.e. "All Correct" as the answer.
181. (1) Discloser
(2) Indifference
(3) Cooperative
(4) Irreversible
(5) All Correct
182. (1) Repetition
(2) Conservative
(3) Acceptability
(4) Innovative
(5) All Correct
183. (1) Vigilant
(2) Judilee
(3) Receptive
(4) Possessive
(5) All Correct
184. (1) Decisive
(2) Destructive
(3) Accommodation
(4) Pioneer
(5) All Correct
185. (1) Compromising
(2) Enthusiasm
(3) Dislocation
(4) Immigration
(5) All Correct
Directions (186-190): Rearrange the following sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) They are not bothered to break rules of the society, laws and even relations.
(b) But one thing is certain. They will one day realize that this importance needs to be shifted.
(c) People are generally ready to go to any extent to possess these materialistic aspects.
(d) All this shift will certainly be in favour of good and socially desirable values.
(e) This is all because of the undue importance attached to these aspects.
(f) Money, comfort, luxuries have dominated all other considerations these days.
186. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
187. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
188. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
189. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
190. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
Directions (191-200): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against, each five words are
suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Dr. Swaminathan is not only a (191) scientist but also an able administrator and an (192)
organiser of projects. He has served the country by (193) many significant positions. His
researches in the field of agriculture and his efforts for (194) the quality of wheat in particular,
have (195) him laurels. Dr. Borlogue has highly (196) his works.
Dr. Swaminathan, is a honorary member of 14 important International Scientific Societies/
Councils including the Royal Society of London. Many Universities have (197) doctorate on him.
In 1972, he was awarded "Padma Bhushan", Dr. Swaminathan (198) in work, not in popularity
and that is the (199) he never came into so much (200).
191. (1) famous
(2) magnificent
(3) decisive
(4) renewed
(5) glorious
192. (1) insecure
(2) absolute
(3) overt
(4) incompetent
(5) efficient
193. (1) creating
(2) developing
(3) encouraging
(4) holding
(5) appointing
194. (1) magnifying
(2) growing
(3) improving
(4) judging
(5) deciding
195. (1) prospered
(2) won
(3) acquired
(4) made
(5) donated
196. (1) analysed
(2) appreciated
(3) cooperated
(4) recommended
(5) curtailed
197. (1) given
(2) registered
(3) conferred
(4) passed
(5) dictated
198. (1) aspires
(2) enjoys
(3) dedicates
(4) believes
(5) continues
199. (1) reason
(2) aim
(3) perspective
(4) way
(5) essence
200. (1) fame
(2) respect
(3) reputation
(4) disregard
(5) limelight
ANSWERS
151. (3), 152. (4), 153. (1), 154. (2), 155. (1), 156. (3), 157. (4), 158. (5), 159. (2), 160. (1)
161. (4), 162. (5), 163. (3), 164. (2), 165. (5), 166. (2), 167. (5), 168. (1), 169. (2), 170. (2)
171. (4), 172. (4), 173. (1), 174. (3), 175. (2), 176. (1), 177. (2), 178. (3), 179. (4), 180. (3)
181. (1), 182. (1), 183. (3), 184. (5), 185. (2), 186. (2), 187. (3), 188. (5), 189. (1), 190. (4)
191. (1), 192. (5), 193. (4), 194. (3), 195. (2), 196. (2), 197. (3), 198. (4), 199. (1), 200. (5)
Saturday, July 16, 2011
NTPC PAPER 2007
NTPC PAPER : 2007 AT NEW DELHI :
10. Fun of instruction pointer
It constitutes of 170 questions (120 Tech + 50 Aptitude)
Time : 2 Hrs
For tech part the syllabus is same as of the GATE and for Aptitude Part R. S. Aggarwal is more than sufficient. As time duration is very short so time management is very important.
APTITUDE SECTION :
For this section no special attention is required only rs aggarwal is enough and it also has easy level of English section.
TECHNICAL SECTION :
For this section u have to b good in the basics. No hard question were asked but u should b careful about your time . It has also some part of very basic general knowledge. The questions were from following topics10-12 Questions about microprocessor(8085)
3 Questions about RS232 standard
7-10 Questions of GK
4-6 Questions on opamp
10-15 Questions on Digital Communications
2-5 Questions on microwaves
15-20 Questions on Analog Devices
20-23 Questions on Digital Electronics (flip flops,gates,mux,no system etc)
1 Questions on ISO OSI Model
5-8 Questions on Control System
10-12 Questions on Signals and their Processing
AND SOME QUESTIONS ON PASSAGES & LIKE
1. Passage2. Word meaning based (antonym and synonyms) fetter, fester, lucid, anomaly, elucidate etc
3. Word analogy based
4. What is a tunnel diode
5. What is a Zener diode
6. Effect of + and – feedback on stability
7. Composition of gobar gas
8. Function of differential in the vehicle
9. Function of stack register
11. Fun of rst6.5,7.5
12. Wht is an interrupt
13. Output vtg calc on op amp
14. How a pulse train can b generated using registers
15. Conversion of oct to hex,hex to binary
16. Fun of quantizer in pcm
17. Why fm is less prone to noise
18. Fun of limiter in detection of FM
19. What is envelop detector20. Phase shift of 1/s^2
21. Signal limited to 1000 hz sampled at nyquist rate. quantizer has 128 level .calculate the bit rate of the system.
22. 1.5 V battery supply same power to R1 and R2 separately(R1>R2).calc the internal resistance of battery
23. A wire is cut in two halves. one half is again stretched to th twice of length .calc the resistance.
NTPC PAPER 2008 :
(NTPC Previous Exam Paper from the Year 2008)
* An ice block submerged in the water, if the ice melts level of water (increase, decrease, remains same, none)
* Simply supported beam with w point load at the middle, max. bending moment? (wl/4)
* Simply supported beam with UDL ,max.deflection (wl4/384EI)
* Cantilevel beam point load at tip,max.bending momemt comes at (end)
* When bearing life L10 represents (bearings 10%survive,bearings 10% fails, none )
* For welding high carbon steels which type of flame is used (oxidizing, carburizing, neutral, none)
* Arrange the following cutting tools in decreasing order of machining hardness…Ceramics
* When P1 and P2 are the loads acting on bearings with life L1 and L2 then L1/L2=? L1/L2={P2/P1}10/3
* Product simplification does not mean? (Product characterization)
* Which of the following process has the most scope in manufacturing? CAD/CAM, CAM, CIM, All the above.
* Concurrent engineering means? (Manufacturing, designing, both, none)
* Which manufacturing process yields higher output and increases worker productivity- (process layout, line+process, functional layout)
* 18-4-1 represents-, Tungsten-Cr-Vn
* For which material is negative allowance rovided-(Graphite,steel,bronze,cast iron)
* What is the recrystallisation temperature of tin- (60,300,1000,none)
* What is the purpose of borax in soldering-
* Top gates are provided in which type of casting-(Shallow casting,simple,complex,none)
* Which statement is true regarding simple gear trains-(i/p and o/p shafts r fixed, each shaft has 2 gears, i/p & o/p shafts r moving)
* What is the purpose of normalizing- (Refining of grain structure)
* As the grain size is decreased-(Hardness increases,corrosion resistance decreases,both)
* Isothermal gas is filled in a vessel at a pressure P and temperature T then considering the compressible forces as the height increases pressure ??(linearly increases linearly decreases exponentially increase )
* A bottle is filled with water and air and is tied to a string and is rotated in horizontal direction. Then in which direction will air bubble travel?
(bottom,neck,uniformly spread)
* A empty bottle(in vaccum) filled with a gas at temp T and press P when the pressure of bottle reaches P temperature of the gas is _? (T,T/K,TK)
* Bearing somerfield number _ with load on bearing? (increases,decreases,no change)
* Critical radius for a sphere is-(2k/h)
* Critical radius exist for_ (spherical,cylindrical,both,slab)
* Convectional resistance/internal resistance is called (biot number)
* Nusselt no. is? (hl/k)
* EOQ=?
* Which statement is true regarding critical path method? (i only one critical path exists for a network, more than one with same duration,)
* Shipment cost,inspection cost,storage cost comes under_ (carrying cost ,holding cost,)
* Ischronous governers sensitivity is- (zero,infinite)
* Self energized brakes are-(friction moment acts in the direction of application of force,opposite to the direction of force, does not need a force to act ,)
* The ratio of heat capacities for evaporator and condenser is_ (Zero,infinity)
* When steam and air mixture with partial pressure 0.06 and 0.07 enters a condenser what is the condenser pressure? (0.06,0.07,0.53,0.03)
* In pulverized burning of coal heat transfer from boiler to water occurs through_( predominant radiation, convection, conduction, conduction+convection)
* Rankine cycle efficiency for same parameters increases mostly with_(reheat, regeneration, super heating )
* Ericson cycle with all reversible processes assume_(carnot cycle,stirling,brayton
* Air delivery tank at outlet of reciprocating compressor is provided for_ (provide constant pressure, avoid cavitation, )
* High speed centrifugal pump has _? (vanes faces in forward direction side,backward,radial vanes)
* Thermal efficiency in decreasing order_? (Otto cycle>dual cycle>diesel cycle)
* When a 1000 K body comes in contact with atmosphere at 300K a loss of 9000 KJ heat is transferred. The net available energy transferred is_
* When entropy of a system increases_? (unavailable energy increases )
* Rolling is a process widely used for_?
* Tool nomenclature_?
* In francis turbine movement of steam?
* For low power consumption _? (rake angle should be increased / decreased, nose angle increased/ decreased)
* Continuous chips occur in_? (High speeds,low speeds,both,none)
* Primary forces in a reciprocating engine_? (fully balanced, partially balanced, completely unbalanced, none)* In proximate analysis pyrogallol is used for analysis of which element_? (nitrogen,oxygen)
* Sulphur content in fuel greatly affects_? (corrosion)
* Heat transfer through radiation can be increased by_? (decreasing emissivity and increases temperature of hot body)
* Which theory of failure clearly explains the failure in case of ductile material? (Maximun shear stress theory or Guests or trescas theory)
When a material is subjected to continuous cycles which limit is being verified? (Endurance limit)
Where is stress concentration maximum? (notches, stress reducing through cuts)
* Power transmitted through a belt drive_? P(T2-T1)
* According to Eulers theory crippling or buckling load is ____ (Wcr = Cπ2EI/l2)
* During sensible heating, specific humidity_? (remains constant)
* COP of a refrigerator is _? (greater than 1 )
* The maximum temperature in a refrigeration cycle is_? (less than/greater than/equal to critical temperature)
* The pressure at the throat of the nozzle_? (maximum,min)
* For a statically determinate set of forces for equilibrium_? (∑ f(X), f(Y), f(Z)=0,∑M=0)
* For a statically determinate set of forces- (there r as many equations as the no. of unknowns)
* 1-2-3 analysis is used for_? (1.break even analysis, ??)
* A problem on mean time of service something like a salesman has a rating of 120. considering 10% allowance time calculate the time required to serve 120?
* A problem n determining time in a queue?
* Energy equation for a laminar flow is _? (Uniform and steady ,non uniform and unsteady)
* Undercuts in welding occurs due to_? (low welding current, high welding current)
* Work holding equipment in shearing?
* At the centre of a nozzle _? (Mach no<1 >=1;=1)
NTPC Entrance Tests Previous Year/ Sample Question Papers
NTPC PAPER : 2007 AT NEW DELHI
It constitutes of 170 questions (120 Tech + 50 Aptitude) | Time : 2 Hrs
APTITUDE SECTION : For this section no special attention is required only rs aggarwal is enough and it also has easy level of English section.
TECHNICAL SECTION : For this section u have to b good in the basics. No hard question were asked but u should b careful about your time . It has also some part of very basic general knowledge. The questions were from following topics-
10-12 Questions about microprocessor(8085)
3 Questions about RS232 standard
7-10 Questions of GK
4-6 Questions on opamp
10-15 Questions on Digital Communications
2-5 Questions on microwaves
15-20 Questions on Analog Devices
20-23 Questions on Digital Electronics (flip flops,gates,mux,no system etc)
It constitutes of 170 questions (120 Tech + 50 Aptitude) | Time : 2 Hrs
APTITUDE SECTION : For this section no special attention is required only rs aggarwal is enough and it also has easy level of English section.
TECHNICAL SECTION : For this section u have to b good in the basics. No hard question were asked but u should b careful about your time . It has also some part of very basic general knowledge. The questions were from following topics-
10-12 Questions about microprocessor(8085)
3 Questions about RS232 standard
7-10 Questions of GK
4-6 Questions on opamp
10-15 Questions on Digital Communications
2-5 Questions on microwaves
15-20 Questions on Analog Devices
20-23 Questions on Digital Electronics (flip flops,gates,mux,no system etc)
1 Questions on ISO OSI Model
5-8 Questions on Control System
10-12 Questions on Signals and their Processing
AND SOME QUESTIONS ON PASSAGES & LIKE
1. Passage
2. Word meaning based (antonym and synonyms) fetter, fester, lucid, anomaly, elucidate etc
3. Word analogy based
4. What is a tunnel diode
5. What is a Zener diode
6. Effect of + and – feedback on stability
7. Composition of gobar gas
8. Function of differential in the vehicle
9. Function of stack register
10. Fun of instruction pointer
11. Fun of rst6.5,7.5
12. Wht is an interrupt
13. Output vtg calc on op amp
14. How a pulse train can b generated using registers
15. Conversion of oct to hex,hex to binary
16. Fun of quantizer in pcm
17. Why fm is less prone to noise
18. Fun of limiter in detection of FM
19. What is envelop detector
20. Phase shift of 1/s^2
21. Signal limited to 1000 hz sampled at nyquist rate. quantizer has 128 level .calculate the bit rate of the system.
22. 1.5 V battery supply same power to R1 and R2 separately(R1>R2).calc the internal resistance of battery
23. A wire is cut in two halves. one half is again stretched to the twice of length .calc the resistance.
---------- Post added at 10:27 AM ---------- Previous post was at 10:26 AM ----------
NTPC PAPER 2008 :
* An ice block submerged in the water, if the ice melts level of water (increase, decrease, remains same, none)
* Simply supported beam with w point load at the middle, max. bending moment? (wl/4)
* Simply supported beam with UDL ,max.deflection (wl4/384EI)
* Cantilevel beam point load at tip,max.bending momemt comes at (end)
* When bearing life L10 represents (bearings 10%survive,bearings 10% fails, none )
* For welding high carbon steels which type of flame is used (oxidizing, carburizing, neutral, none)
* Arrange the following cutting tools in decreasing order of machining hardness…Ceramics
* When P1 and P2 are the loads acting on bearings with life L1 and L2 then L1/L2=? L1/L2={P2/P1}10/3
* Product simplification does not mean? (Product characterization)
* Which of the following process has the most scope in manufacturing? CAD/CAM, CAM, CIM, All the above.
* Concurrent engineering means? (Manufacturing, designing, both, none)
* Which manufacturing process yields higher output and increases worker productivity- (process layout, line+process, functional layout)
* 18-4-1 represents-, Tungsten-Cr-Vn
* For which material is negative allowance rovided-(Graphite,steel,bronze,cast iron)
* What is the recrystallisation temperature of tin- (60,300,1000,none)
* What is the purpose of borax in soldering-
* Top gates are provided in which type of casting-(Shallow casting,simple,complex,none)
* Which statement is true regarding simple gear trains-(i/p and o/p shafts r fixed, each shaft has 2 gears, i/p & o/p shafts r moving)
* What is the purpose of normalizing- (Refining of grain structure)
* As the grain size is decreased-(Hardness increases,corrosion resistance decreases,both)
* Isothermal gas is filled in a vessel at a pressure P and temperature T then considering the compressible forces as the height increases pressure ??(linearly increases linearly decreases exponentially increase )
* A bottle is filled with water and air and is tied to a string and is rotated in horizontal direction. Then in which direction will air bubble travel?
(bottom,neck,uniformly spread)
* A empty bottle(in vaccum) filled with a gas at temp T and press P when the pressure of bottle reaches P temperature of the gas is _? (T,T/K,TK)
* Bearing somerfield number _ with load on bearing? (increases,decreases,no change)
* Critical radius for a sphere is-(2k/h)
* Critical radius exist for_ (spherical,cylindrical,both,slab)
* Convectional resistance/internal resistance is called (biot number)
* Nusselt no. is? (hl/k)
* EOQ=?
* Which statement is true regarding critical path method? (i only one critical path exists for a network, more than one with same duration,)
* Shipment cost,inspection cost,storage cost comes under_ (carrying cost ,holding cost,)
* Ischronous governers sensitivity is- (zero,infinite)
* Self energized brakes are-(friction moment acts in the direction of application of force,opposite to the direction of force, does not need a force to act ,)
* The ratio of heat capacities for evaporator and condenser is_ (Zero,infinity)
* When steam and air mixture with partial pressure 0.06 and 0.07 enters a condenser what is the condenser pressure? (0.06,0.07,0.53,0.03)
* In pulverized burning of coal heat transfer from boiler to water occurs through_( predominant radiation, convection, conduction, conduction+convection)
* Rankine cycle efficiency for same parameters increases mostly with_(reheat, regeneration, super heating )
* Ericson cycle with all reversible processes assume_(carnot cycle,stirling,brayton
* Air delivery tank at outlet of reciprocating compressor is provided for_ (provide constant pressure, avoid cavitation, )
* High speed centrifugal pump has _? (vanes faces in forward direction side,backward,radial vanes)
* Thermal efficiency in decreasing order_? (Otto cycle>dual cycle>diesel cycle)
* When a 1000 K body comes in contact with atmosphere at 300K a loss of 9000 KJ heat is transferred. The net available energy transferred is_
* When entropy of a system increases_? (unavailable energy increases )
* Rolling is a process widely used for_?
* Tool nomenclature_?
* In francis turbine movement of steam?
* For low power consumption _? (rake angle should be increased / decreased, nose angle increased/ decreased)
* Continuous chips occur in_? (High speeds,low speeds,both,none)
* Primary forces in a reciprocating engine_? (fully balanced, partially balanced, completely unbalanced, none)
* In proximate analysis pyrogallol is used for analysis of which element_? (nitrogen,oxygen)
* Sulphur content in fuel greatly affects_? (corrosion)
* Heat transfer through radiation can be increased by_? (decreasing emissivity and increases temperature of hot body)
* Which theory of failure clearly explains the failure in case of ductile material? (Maximun shear stress theory or Guests or trescas theory)
When a material is subjected to continuous cycles which limit is being verified? (Endurance limit)
Where is stress concentration maximum? (notches, stress reducing through cuts)
* Power transmitted through a belt drive_? P(T2-T1)
* According to Eulers theory crippling or buckling load is ____ (Wcr = Cπ2EI/l2)
* During sensible heating, specific humidity_? (remains constant)
* COP of a refrigerator is _? (greater than 1 )
* The maximum temperature in a refrigeration cycle is_? (less than/greater than/equal to critical temperature)
* The pressure at the throat of the nozzle_? (maximum,min)
* For a statically determinate set of forces for equilibrium_? (∑ f(X), f(Y), f(Z)=0,∑M=0)
* For a statically determinate set of forces- (there r as many equations as the no. of unknowns)
* 1-2-3 analysis is used for_? (1.break even analysis, ??)
* A problem on mean time of service something like a salesman has a rating of 120. considering 10% allowance time calculate the time required to serve 120?
* A problem n determining time in a queue?
* Energy equation for a laminar flow is _? (Uniform and steady ,non uniform and unsteady)
* Undercuts in welding occurs due to_? (low welding current, high welding current)
* Work holding equipment in shearing?
* At the centre of a nozzle _? (Mach no<1 >=1;=1)
---------- Post added at 10:28 AM ---------- Previous post was at 10:27 AM ----------
Some Technical Questions from Previous NTPC Exam :
Technical Paper :
1. Given four unit-circle plots identify the one corresponding to a bandpass filter.
2. A 4 kHz signal is sampled at thrice the Nyquist rate and sent through a channel with error ≤1%. Calc the bandwidth of the channel.
3. Given a two port network in the form of a T find o/p admittance in terms of y-parameters.
4. Connect two 1Ω resistors in series, then connect two 1H inductors across one of the resistors such that the ckt looks like a 1Ω resistor in series with a Π-section of a resistor and two inductors. With the series resistance on the i/p side, calc the transfer function of this ckt
5. Inverse laplace transform of 1/s2[d/ds(e-3s/s)]
6. Lower useful input limit of a transducer is determined by…
7. Air-cored inductors are used for low frequency/high frequency/equal frequency operations.
8. Given 4 pole-zero plots identify which one corresponds to the driving point impedance of a series resonant ckt.
9. Expression for δ(n): u(n)-u(n-1)/ u(n-1)-u(n+1)/ u(n)+u(n+1)/...
10. The sequence (2,3,4,3) is circularly even/circularly odd/circularly zero/both circularly even and odd.
11. Z-transform of 3n u(n).
12. Match the following with their characteristics: LED/LCD/nixie tube/optical fibre.
13. Numerical on a photodiode: to calculate the responsivity/sensitivity when a specified no of incident photons cause a specified no of electron generation.
14. Given an op-amp ckt obtain an expression for o/p voltage.
15. No. of encirclements made about the origin of the nyquist plot of the open loop TF:1/[(s-1)(s+2)(s+3)].
16. For a radioactive sample which decays to 12.5% of its initial value in x days, the half life is given by____
17. For a repeater in a PCM cable identify the correct sequence of actions amongst threshold/equalization/etc.
18. O/P of a delta modulator when a ramp input is fed to it.
19. Steady state error with ramp i/p for a type-0 system.
20. Creeping occurs in energy meters bcoz….
21. Ultrasonic method of flow measurement cannot be used in liquids with air bubbles/has less attenuation in air compared to liquid-identify the false statement (if any) among these.
22. Major cause of losses in a fibre optic cable: dispersion/total internal refraction/presence of core and cladding/…
23. Which layer in the OSI model is concerned with printer buffering,etc: network/session/transport/…
24. Given some function F(jω) calc its inverse CTFT.
25. Relation between laplace and z-transform: s=z/ s=ln z/ s=( ln z/T) /…
26. Maxm and minm probability error among ASK,PSK,FSK,DPSK etc
27. Which of the following is a non linear modulation scheme: PAM/QAM/PCM/…
28. Match the following functions: e-t , e-t + et, sin(πt) with causal and stable system, causal and unstable system, etc.
29. Given a ckt with a 50 Ω resistor in series between two voltage sources of 10 V and 5 V magnitude calc power delivered by 5 V source.
30. Laplace transform of e-3tu(t)+e2tu(-t).
31. Which photodetector has output affected by own intrinsic noise: PN/APD/PIN/all.
32. AC signal conditioning is used for inductive and capacitive/resistive/piezoelectric transducers/all of the above.
33. When I mode is added to proportional control system stability increases/ decreases/ steady state performance deteriorates/damping increases.
34. Reset control is another name for integral/derivative/proportional/…. Control.
35. Time response of system having transfer function 625/(s2+25) will be of the form…
36. Given some transfer function calc the peak response time.
37. The nyquist sampling rate of the function [sin(at)/t]2 will be…
38. The feedback topology that results in increased i/p and o/p impedance is current series/voltage series/current shunt voltage shunt.
39. Numerical on cardiac output calculation given heart rate and volume per beat.
40. In an ECG instrumentation amplifier the differential gain is provided by 1st stage/2nd stage/mismatched resistors/output stage.
41. Repeat ques 40 above for the classic 3-op amp instrum amplifier.
42. EMG signals are of the order of mV/V/μV/…
43. Computer assisted tomography is used for…
44. Numerical on electrostatic instrument, to calculate deflection given spring constant, torque etc.
45. To prevent loading of a ckt i/p impedance of a CRO should bee high/low/inductive/capacitive.
46. Addition of a zero to a 2nd order underdamped system results in increase/decrease of rise time and increase/decrease of peak overshoot.
47. For PI ctrl we obtain improved bandwidth/improved steady state performance/ worsened steady state performance/…
48. SNR of normal AM system is comparable/3 dB lower/3 dB higher/6 dB lower over DSB-SC and SSB system.
49. Which is an effective measure of the noise related performance of an amplifier: SNR/noise ratio/thermal noise/shot noise.
50. Given baseband signal freq and carrier freq calc which of the freq given will not be present for conventional AM.
51. Distinction between FM and PM at high frequencies.
52. Which of these has the least propagation delay RTL/ECL/I2L/CMOS.
53 Switching speed of CMOS is affected/unaffected by changes in supply voltage.
54. Which of these provides a measure of heart rate P/QRS complex/T/none of these.
55. Given a ckt of a logarithmic amplifier you had to identify what ckt was it.
56. JFET can operate in depletion/enhancement/both/none of the above modes.
57. When a BJT operates in saturation the junctions are fwd biased/reverse biased/…
58. BIBO stability criterion implies that poles are within/outside/on the unit circle.
59. For faithful amplification of low amplitude signals the cut-off/active/saturation regions of a transistor is used.
60. Lissajous pattern of a signal rotates 36 times per minute. if the oscillator frequency is 560 kHz then the unknown freq is…
61. % resolution of a 10 bit ADC.
62. To obtain 10 mV resolution on 5 V range how many bit DAC is to be used..
63. Why is LCD preferred to LED.
64. How will 0.6973 be displayed on 10 V range of a 4 ½ digit multimeter.
65. Which of the following cannot be used for an automatic feedback temp ctrl system thermocouple/thermometer/thermistor/IC sensor.
66. Y(n)=X(-n+3) is an example of a linear/non linear and shift variant/invariant system.
67. The falling body method is used to determine viscosity/humidity/….
68. Which of these methods of viscosity measurement gives greatest accuracy falling body method/rotating cylinder method/both/…
69. Some question on gas chromatography
70. A device having a rotor with 3 Y-connected coils and a stator is likely to be a synchro/RVDT/control transformer/…
71. In a twisted ring counter the initial count is 1000. after the 4th clock pulse its state will be….
72. A 240 kHz signal is given into a 3 bit binary ripple counter. The lowest o/p freq obtainable is….
73. For parity bit checking which of the following gates can be used XOR/NAND/OR/XNOR.
74. Why is a BJT called so..
75. Identify the expression for gauge factor of a strain gauge among the given options.
76. In a semiconductor strain gauge as tensile strain is applied what changes take place in the n and p areas..
77. How does a radioactive level gauging system work…
78. A capacitive transducer measuring level works on the principle of change in distance between plates/change in dielectric strength/…
79. For maximum power transfer in an AC circuit the condition to be satisfied is ZL+ZS=0/XL+XS=0/none of these/….where l and s refers to load and source respectively.
80. Find the transfer function from a block diagram.
81. Synchronous ctrs are preferred to asynchronous ctrs bcoz they are faster/glitches at the output can be avoided/both/none of these.
82. The lissajous figure formed on an oscilloscope looks like the English figure of 8. if the vertical channel input is 1 kHz the horizontal input freq is….
83. IE=IC for a transistor in saturation/cutoff/active/both saturation and active regions.
84. Reproducibility of measurements is called accuracy/precision/linearity/none of these.
85. Which of these is not strictly a static characteristic accuracy/precision/tolerance/linearity.
86. The shunt coil in a Q meter has resistance of the order of mΩ/Ω/kΩ/..
87. For measuring inductance of high Q coils the bridge used is Maxwell-wien/Schering/…
88. Which of these measures inductance in terms of capacitance Maxwell and hay/Maxwell and Schering/hay and Schering/…
89. In a flip-flop with preset and clear inputs both are applied simultaneously/clear is cleared when preset is applied/preset is cleared when clear is applied/….
90. What happens when the RET instruction is encountered by 8085
91. A 1024*8 memory chip needs how many address lines…
92. What happens when the PUSH instruction is encountered by 8051.
93. In FM relation between no of sidebands w.r.t. modulating freq
94. Numerical on DPSK.
95. A multiplexer accepts input data and provides one output all the time/one output at a time/many outputs at a time/many outputs all the time.
96. Pulse modulation is essentially a process of multiplexing/….
97. Wave shape is altered by clipper/clamper/voltage doubler/amplifier.
98. 4 signals of frequencies 100,100,200 and 400 Hz are sampled at nyquist rate and sent through TDM on a channel.the bandwidth of the channel is…
99. Superposition can be applied to a ckt with initial conditions/non-linear ckt/…
100. Kelvin’s double bridge is used for the measurement of…
101. Which of these is not an active transducer thermocouple/solar cell/RTD/none of these.
102. Oscillator using positive feedback has gain of 0/∞/undefined value/…
103. Wien bridge oscillator should initially have closed loop gain >3/<3/=3/…
104. Some question on gain margin and phase shift of a system.
105. Fourier series expansion of even function has sine terms only/cosine terms only/no odd harmonics/…
106. Full wave rectifier gives clean dc o/p/dc o/p with small ripple/positive half and inverted negative half of i/p as o/p.
107. Which of these values of ζ gives damped oscillations: 0/1/1.6/0.6
108. For a transformer of ratio 1:a and excited by a source V with impedances Z1 and Z2 on the primary and secondary side value of a for maxm power transfer should be..
109. Fourier transform of cos(ω0t) is…
110. At t=0 the step response of a 1st order system is….
111. 555 can be used as a monostable/astable/freq dividing ckt/all of these.
112. In a PT when the secondary is open ckted with the primary excited what will happen.
113. If a system is marginally stable then the nature of oscillations will be…
114. Linear encoders mostly use straight binary/BCD/gray code.
115. For an accelerometer working in displacement mode the ratio of forcing freq to natural freq should be…..
It may Contain questions with options like Both a) and b) . While solving this type of Question we may get some difficulty, but practicing more we can overcome this difficulty. All the best and do more Practice.
Aptitude Paper (70 Questions):
Most of the Aptitude questions we get straightforward. This Paper contains questions involving profit and loss, ratio-proportion, DI from pie-charts, one RC passage and other questions from verbal. Here we have to concern the Verbal questions, which will be quite confusing, as none of the options seemed to fit the question.
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