AB International Placement - Immediate employment for Urkraine, Europe is now open for application of Nanny / Babysitter jobs. If you are willing to work in Europe country, please visit the POEA recruitment agency address below.
POEA License Number: 081-LB-040308-R
Principal Name: Rich Family in Ukraine
Advertised: 19-07-11 | Closing Date: 17-09-11
Hiring Accredited Agency: AB INTERNATIONAL PLACEMENT INC.
Location Address: Suite 501 A. Peñalosa Building
1563 F. Agoncillo St. Cor. Pedro Gil St.
Ermita, Manila, Philippines
Mobile Number: 0919-629-1238 / 0918-328-6179
Telephone Numbers: (632) 523-6268 / 775-8861
Fax #: (632) 521-7307
Office hours: Monday to Friday, 8:00 am to 6:00 pm
Email Address: abintl94@gmail.com
Website: http://www.abmanpower.com
Requirements:
* Candidate must possess at least a Bachelor's/College Degree , Nursing or equivalent.
* At least 2 year(s) of working experience in the related field is required for this position.
* Applicants must be willing to work in Europe.
* Preferably 1-4 Yrs Experienced Employees specializing in General Work (Housekeeper, Driver, Dispatch, Messenger, etc) or equivalent.
* 5 Contract positions available.
* Can speak and understand good English
* College level / College Graduate is required in this position
Monday, July 18, 2011
Job Search Simplicity
We all need a little simplicity in the job search, right? While some have really figured this out, many websites and resources have brought more complexity than simplicity. I've broken down job seeker resources into three basic categories: Career Services, Corporate, and Community. It doesn't have to be complicated.
Here are three FREE job seeker resources:
Career Services
· Most college students have no idea of the services they provide. NACE (National Association of Colleges & Employers) recently surveyed over 13,000 graduating seniors regarding Career Services. Résumé help was rated in the top percentile, with interview preparation ranking in the lowest. Here's the full story: Top 5 Career Services. Take the time to discover what they can help you with in your career search.
Corporate
· There's a lot that can be learned from the corporate side of things. Whether it's corporate recruiters on campus leading an information session about their company, corporate blogs or websites, it's a great way to learn about common entry-level positions, the history, culture and how you'd fit within the company. It's all about doing your homework, here. Learn about the company BEFORE you approach their booth at a career fair.
· Face to face networking can sound scary, but there's a ton of value in this. That's why I'm putting face to face above online networking. Each can complement each other, but if you can, I would suggest networking as much as you can in person. It's easy to do through campus or community organizations like SIFE. Meet new people in the community - they may be able to help you. Go with a plan in mind, though. Know why you're connecting and don't make it all about you. Ask how YOU can help.
· Social platforms like Facebook, Twitter, and LinkedIn have millions of job seekers, recruiters, and HR professionals participating. It's a great way to learn more about them, build your personal brand (increasing Search Engine Optimization, or SEO), and build your credibility within the network. Also, don't underestimate the power of blogs to help you in the job search, mature as a professional, and maintain your personal brand.
Don't stop networking just because you found (or didn't find) a job. Use this opportunity to build your reputation and pay it forward, helping those that may find themselves in the same situation that you were recently in. Everyone takes a different approach in the job search. I would encourage you to use all the resources that are available to you - especially the ones that are FREE!
Job Search Simplicity
We all need a little simplicity in the job search, right? While some have really figured this out, many websites and resources have brought more complexity than simplicity. I've broken down job seeker resources into three basic categories: Career Services, Corporate, and Community. It doesn't have to be complicated.
Here are three FREE job seeker resources:
Career Services
· Most college students have no idea of the services they provide. NACE (National Association of Colleges & Employers) recently surveyed over 13,000 graduating seniors regarding Career Services. Résumé help was rated in the top percentile, with interview preparation ranking in the lowest. Here's the full story: Top 5 Career Services. Take the time to discover what they can help you with in your career search.
Corporate
· There's a lot that can be learned from the corporate side of things. Whether it's corporate recruiters on campus leading an information session about their company, corporate blogs or websites, it's a great way to learn about common entry-level positions, the history, culture and how you'd fit within the company. It's all about doing your homework, here. Learn about the company BEFORE you approach their booth at a career fair.
· Face to face networking can sound scary, but there's a ton of value in this. That's why I'm putting face to face above online networking. Each can complement each other, but if you can, I would suggest networking as much as you can in person. It's easy to do through campus or community organizations like SIFE. Meet new people in the community - they may be able to help you. Go with a plan in mind, though. Know why you're connecting and don't make it all about you. Ask how YOU can help.
· Social platforms like Facebook, Twitter, and LinkedIn have millions of job seekers, recruiters, and HR professionals participating. It's a great way to learn more about them, build your personal brand (increasing Search Engine Optimization, or SEO), and build your credibility within the network. Also, don't underestimate the power of blogs to help you in the job search, mature as a professional, and maintain your personal brand.
Don't stop networking just because you found (or didn't find) a job. Use this opportunity to build your reputation and pay it forward, helping those that may find themselves in the same situation that you were recently in. Everyone takes a different approach in the job search. I would encourage you to use all the resources that are available to you - especially the ones that are FREE!
Andhra Bank Clerk Recruitment: Solved Previous Year Question Paper 2007 (I Reasoning)
1. In a certain code ROPE is written as $3%6 and RITE is written as $4#6. How is PORT written
in that code?
(1) %4$#
(2) $3%#
(3) $64%
(4) %3$#
(5) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT, each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said 'She is the only grad daughter of my grandmother's
daughter'. How is the girl in photograph related to Nikita?
(1) Sister
(2) Niece/ daughter
(3) Aunt
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to the group?
(1) Pineapple
(2) Guava
(3) Grapes
(4) Papaya
(5) Pear
5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels
are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end?
(1) S
(2) B
(3) A
(4) K
(5) None of these
6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR written in that code?
(1) DIBJS
(2) SBJID
(3) SHBGD
(4) SJBID
(5) None of these
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to the group?
(1) FH
(2) KM
(3) PR
(4) CE
(5) JM
8. If ' P Q' means 'P is wife of Q', 'P+Q' means 'P is father of Q' and 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q'
then in G H +R D, how is G related to D?
(1) Cannot be determined
(2) Mother
(3) Niece
(4) Aunt
(5) None of these
9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will
remain at the same position?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to the group?
(1) 17
(2) 19
(3) 23
(4) 29
(5) 27
11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters AEHT, using each letter only
once?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
12. If '' means 'x', $ means '+', # means ' ' and '©' means '-' then what is the value of
360 # 24$ 56« 5© 48?
(1) 253
(2) 242
(3) 247
(4) 285
(5) None of these
13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow, yellow means red and red means
white then what is the colour of turmeric?
(1) green
(2) yellow
(3) red
(4) pink
(5) None of these
14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the tenth and the
eleventh letters of the word PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second letter of that
word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one word
can be formed your answer is Y.
(1) A
(2) E
(3) L
(4) X
(5) Y
15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of Suresh who is tenth from the
left end. Nisha is second to the right of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total
how many children are there in the row?
(1) 19
(2) 20
(3) 21
(4) 18
(5) None of these
Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols ©, #, «, $ and @ are used with different meanings
as follows:
'A © B' means 'A is smaller than B'
'A # B' means 'A is either smaller than or equal to B'
'A « B' means 'A is greater than B'
'A $ B' means 'A is either greater than or equal to B'
'A @ B' means 'A is neither smaller than nor greater than B'
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the
two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
16. Statements: V#S, S©L, L©J
Conclusions: I. V © L
II. S © J
17. Statements: M#R, R©J, J#H
Conclusions: I. M #H
II. R © H
18. Statements: H$F, F@G, G«M
Conclusions: I. H «M
II. H «G
19. Statements: R©J, J «T,,T # L
Conclusions: I. R @ T
II. J @ l
20. Statements: W@T, T$K, K «F
Conclusions: I. W $ K
II. W @ K
Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which
of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
21. Statements:
Some pens are books.
All books are pencils.
All pencils are jars.
Conclusions:
I. All books are jars.
II. Some pens are pencils.
22. Statements:
Some bowls are spoons
Some spoons are forks
All forks are plates.
Conclusions:
I. Some bowls are forks.
II. Some spoons are plates.
23. Statements:
Some bottles are jars.
All jars are buckets.
All buckets are tanks.
Conclusions:
I. All jars are tanks.
II. Some buckets are tanks.
24. Statements:
Some phones are mobiles.
Some mobiles are computers.
Some computers are keys.
Conclusions:
I. Some phones are keys.
II. Some computes are phones.
25. Statements:
All papers are files.
Some files are folders.
All folders are bags.
Conclusions:
I. Some files are bags.
II. Some papers are folders.
Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita?
I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita.
II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita.
27. What is the code for 'Play' in the code language?
I. In the code language 'play and dance' is written as 'ka to pe'
II. In the code language enjoy the dance' is written as 'pe jo ra'.
28. How many children are there in the class?
I. Vandana's rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is twenty fifth from the bottom.
II. Nandini's rank is seventeenth from the top.
29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta?
I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than Maya and Geeta.
II. Neeta is not the tallest.
30. How many sons does Ramesh have?
I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh.
II. R is brother of H.
Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol
arrangement . Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow:
5 D G E « 7 9 $ F 1 6 R % L I A J 3 B # 4 @ K P 8 U M 2
31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) $9F
(2) R6%
(3) 8PU
(4) #B4
(5) 3BJ
32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement which element will be third to the
left of thirteenth from the left?
(1) L
(2) R
(3) 6
(4) I
(5) None of these
33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
arrangement?
EDH 9 « 7 I$F ?
(1) 6RI
(2) %R6
(3) R16
(4) %6R
(5) None of these
34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right end if all the numbers are
removed from the above arrangement?
(1) K
(2) @
(3) P
(4) #
(5) None of these
35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a vowel?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of following information. Study it
carefully and answer the questions.
Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. J is
second to the right of P who is third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits
between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N.
36. Who is to the immediate left of L?
(1) Q
(2) O
(3) K
(4) N
(5) None of these
37. Who is to the immediate left of K?
(1) N
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
38. Which of the following is the correct position of N?
(1) Second to the right of K
(2) To the immediate left of K
(3) To the immediate right of M
(4) To the immediate right of K
(5) None of these
39. Who is third to the right of P?
(1) L
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) N
(5) None of these
40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first person sitting between the other two?
(1) PJO
(2) OPJ
(3) OPM
(4) MPO
(5) None of these
Directions (41-50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on
the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
ANSWERS
1. (4), 2. (3), 3. (2), 4. (3), 5. (2), 6. (4), 7. (5), 8. (2), 9. (4), 10. (5)
11. (3), 12. (3), 13. (3), 14. (5), 15. (1), 16. (5), 17. (2), 18. (1), 19. (4), 20. (1)
21. (5), 22. (2), 23. (5), 24. (4), 25. (1), 26. (3), 27. (4), 28. (5), 29. (5), 30. (5)
31. (5), 32. (2), 33. (4), 34. (1), 35. (2), 36. (5), 37. (3), 38. (4), 39. (1), 40. (2)
41. (3), 42. (4), 43. (1), 44. (5), 45. (1), 46. (4), 47. (5), 48. (1), 49. (2), 50. (3)
in that code?
(1) %4$#
(2) $3%#
(3) $64%
(4) %3$#
(5) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT, each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said 'She is the only grad daughter of my grandmother's
daughter'. How is the girl in photograph related to Nikita?
(1) Sister
(2) Niece/ daughter
(3) Aunt
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to the group?
(1) Pineapple
(2) Guava
(3) Grapes
(4) Papaya
(5) Pear
5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels
are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end?
(1) S
(2) B
(3) A
(4) K
(5) None of these
6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR written in that code?
(1) DIBJS
(2) SBJID
(3) SHBGD
(4) SJBID
(5) None of these
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to the group?
(1) FH
(2) KM
(3) PR
(4) CE
(5) JM
8. If ' P Q' means 'P is wife of Q', 'P+Q' means 'P is father of Q' and 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q'
then in G H +R D, how is G related to D?
(1) Cannot be determined
(2) Mother
(3) Niece
(4) Aunt
(5) None of these
9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will
remain at the same position?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to the group?
(1) 17
(2) 19
(3) 23
(4) 29
(5) 27
11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters AEHT, using each letter only
once?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
12. If '' means 'x', $ means '+', # means ' ' and '©' means '-' then what is the value of
360 # 24$ 56« 5© 48?
(1) 253
(2) 242
(3) 247
(4) 285
(5) None of these
13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow, yellow means red and red means
white then what is the colour of turmeric?
(1) green
(2) yellow
(3) red
(4) pink
(5) None of these
14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the tenth and the
eleventh letters of the word PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second letter of that
word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one word
can be formed your answer is Y.
(1) A
(2) E
(3) L
(4) X
(5) Y
15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of Suresh who is tenth from the
left end. Nisha is second to the right of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total
how many children are there in the row?
(1) 19
(2) 20
(3) 21
(4) 18
(5) None of these
Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols ©, #, «, $ and @ are used with different meanings
as follows:
'A © B' means 'A is smaller than B'
'A # B' means 'A is either smaller than or equal to B'
'A « B' means 'A is greater than B'
'A $ B' means 'A is either greater than or equal to B'
'A @ B' means 'A is neither smaller than nor greater than B'
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the
two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
16. Statements: V#S, S©L, L©J
Conclusions: I. V © L
II. S © J
17. Statements: M#R, R©J, J#H
Conclusions: I. M #H
II. R © H
18. Statements: H$F, F@G, G«M
Conclusions: I. H «M
II. H «G
19. Statements: R©J, J «T,,T # L
Conclusions: I. R @ T
II. J @ l
20. Statements: W@T, T$K, K «F
Conclusions: I. W $ K
II. W @ K
Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which
of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
21. Statements:
Some pens are books.
All books are pencils.
All pencils are jars.
Conclusions:
I. All books are jars.
II. Some pens are pencils.
22. Statements:
Some bowls are spoons
Some spoons are forks
All forks are plates.
Conclusions:
I. Some bowls are forks.
II. Some spoons are plates.
23. Statements:
Some bottles are jars.
All jars are buckets.
All buckets are tanks.
Conclusions:
I. All jars are tanks.
II. Some buckets are tanks.
24. Statements:
Some phones are mobiles.
Some mobiles are computers.
Some computers are keys.
Conclusions:
I. Some phones are keys.
II. Some computes are phones.
25. Statements:
All papers are files.
Some files are folders.
All folders are bags.
Conclusions:
I. Some files are bags.
II. Some papers are folders.
Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita?
I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita.
II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita.
27. What is the code for 'Play' in the code language?
I. In the code language 'play and dance' is written as 'ka to pe'
II. In the code language enjoy the dance' is written as 'pe jo ra'.
28. How many children are there in the class?
I. Vandana's rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is twenty fifth from the bottom.
II. Nandini's rank is seventeenth from the top.
29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta?
I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than Maya and Geeta.
II. Neeta is not the tallest.
30. How many sons does Ramesh have?
I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh.
II. R is brother of H.
Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol
arrangement . Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow:
5 D G E « 7 9 $ F 1 6 R % L I A J 3 B # 4 @ K P 8 U M 2
31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) $9F
(2) R6%
(3) 8PU
(4) #B4
(5) 3BJ
32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement which element will be third to the
left of thirteenth from the left?
(1) L
(2) R
(3) 6
(4) I
(5) None of these
33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
arrangement?
EDH 9 « 7 I$F ?
(1) 6RI
(2) %R6
(3) R16
(4) %6R
(5) None of these
34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right end if all the numbers are
removed from the above arrangement?
(1) K
(2) @
(3) P
(4) #
(5) None of these
35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a vowel?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of following information. Study it
carefully and answer the questions.
Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. J is
second to the right of P who is third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits
between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N.
36. Who is to the immediate left of L?
(1) Q
(2) O
(3) K
(4) N
(5) None of these
37. Who is to the immediate left of K?
(1) N
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
38. Which of the following is the correct position of N?
(1) Second to the right of K
(2) To the immediate left of K
(3) To the immediate right of M
(4) To the immediate right of K
(5) None of these
39. Who is third to the right of P?
(1) L
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) N
(5) None of these
40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first person sitting between the other two?
(1) PJO
(2) OPJ
(3) OPM
(4) MPO
(5) None of these
Directions (41-50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on
the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
ANSWERS
1. (4), 2. (3), 3. (2), 4. (3), 5. (2), 6. (4), 7. (5), 8. (2), 9. (4), 10. (5)
11. (3), 12. (3), 13. (3), 14. (5), 15. (1), 16. (5), 17. (2), 18. (1), 19. (4), 20. (1)
21. (5), 22. (2), 23. (5), 24. (4), 25. (1), 26. (3), 27. (4), 28. (5), 29. (5), 30. (5)
31. (5), 32. (2), 33. (4), 34. (1), 35. (2), 36. (5), 37. (3), 38. (4), 39. (1), 40. (2)
41. (3), 42. (4), 43. (1), 44. (5), 45. (1), 46. (4), 47. (5), 48. (1), 49. (2), 50. (3)
Andhra Bank Clerk Recruitment: Solved Previous Year Question Paper 2007 (II Numerical Ability)
Directions (51-75): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions ?
51. 832.456-539.982-123.321=?
(1) 196.153
(2) 149.153
(3) 169.153
(4) 176.135
(5) None of these
52. ? x 19 = 7828
(1) 411
(2) 412
(3) 413
(4) 414
(5) 415
53. 236.69+356.74 = 393.39 + ?
(1) 200.04
(2) 201.04
(3) 200.14
(4) 202.14
(5) 203.04
54. 734 / ? = 91.75
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 10
(5) None of these
55. x (35 x 15 x 10) / (25 x 2) = ?
(1) 105
(2) 115
(3) 70
(4) 35
(5) None of these
56. 5938+4456+2891 = ?
(1) 15255
(2) 14285
(3) 13285
(4) 12385
(5) None of these
57. 859.05 + 428.89+663.17=?
(1) 1585.91
(2) 1286.94
(3) 1950.02
(4) 1950.11
(5) 1951.01
58. 434 x 645=?
(1) 27840
(2) 297930
(3) 279903
(4) 279930
(5) None of these
59. 7 x ? =29.05
(1) 4.05
(2) 4.15
(3) 3.95
(4) 4.28
(5) None of these
60. 725 / 25 - 13 = ?
(1) 16
(2) 29
(3) 12
(4) 18
(5) None of these
61. (558 x 45) / (18 x 45) = ?
(1) 314
(2) 313
(3) 312
(4) 311
(5) None of these
62. 806 / 26 =?
(1) 30
(2) 32
(3) 34
(4) 36
(5) None of these
63. 559 + 995 = ? x 16
(1) 92.05
(2) 95.25
(3) 93.15
(4) 94.35
(5) None of these
64. ((337 +146) x 8)=?
(1) 3884
(2) 1515
(3) 3864
(4) 1505
(5) 3846
65.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
66. 4758-2782-1430=?
(1) 356
(2) 396
(3) 486
(4) 546
(5) None of these
67. 9.1 x 7.5 x 6.2 =?
(1) 423.25
(2) 68.25
(3) 593.775
(4) 472.5
(5) None of these
68.
(1) 43
(2) 45
(3) 47
(4) 49
(5) 51
69.
(1) 1444
(2) 1442
(3) 1448
(4) 1456
(5) 1460
70.
(1) 25
(2) 64
(3) 8
(4) 7.5
(5) None of these
71. 248 of +110 of 20% = ?
(1) 192
(2) 202
(3) 212
(4) 239
(5) 242
72.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
73.
(1) 1511
(2) 1531
(3) 1515
(4) 1553
(5) 1521
74. 484 of + 366 of = ?
(1) 663
(2) 844
(3) 668
(4) 848
(5) 666
75. 280% of 460 =?
(1) 1188
(2) 1284
(3) 1288
(4) 1280
(5) None of these
76. Which of the following is equal to 30 x 246?
(1) 118 x 13+209 x 42
(2) 174 x 10+222 x 19
(3) 173 x 12+221 x 24
(4) 169 x 16+167 x 50
(5) None of these
77. The cost of 9 kgs. of sugar is Rs. 279. What is the cost of 153 kgs. of sugar?
(1) Rs. 3.377
(2) Rs. 4.473
(3) Rs. 4.377
(4) Rs. 4.743
(5) Rs. 4.347
78. A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph. and reaches its destination in 7 hours. What is the
distance covered by the bus?
(1) 343 km
(2) 283 km
(3) 353 km
(4) 245 km
(5) 340 km
79. th of th of a number is 82. What is the number?
(1) 410
(2) 820
(3) 420
(4) 220
(5) None of these
80. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 20
(2) 21
(3) 22
(4) 23
(5) None of these
81. The sum of three consecutive integers is 39. Which of the following is the largest among the
three?
(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 13
(4) 16
(5) None of these
82. Find the average of the following set of scores:
118, 186, 138, 204, 175, 229
(1) 148
(2) 152
(3) 156
(4) 160
(5) 175
83. A banana costs Rs. 2.25 and an apple costs Rs. 3.00. What will be the total cost of 4 dozen of
bananas and 3 dozen of apples?
(1) Rs. 216
(2) Rs.108
(3) Rs. 189
(4) Rs. 225
(5) Rs. 162
84. How many pieces of 8.6 metres long cloth can be cut out of a length of 455.8 metres cloth?
(1) 43
(2) 48
(3) 55
(4) 53
(5) 62
85. The product of two successive numbers is 3192. What is the smallest number?
(1) 59
(2) 58
(3) 57
(4) 56
(5) None of these
86. What is 184 times 156?
(1) 28704
(2) 29704
(3) 30604
(4) 27604
(5) None of these
87. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
question?
5989 48 11=?
(1) 1375
(2) 1370
(3) 1372
(4) 1368
(5) 1365
88. If an amount of Rs. 15,487 is divided equally among 76 students, approximately how much
amount will each student get?
(1) Rs. 206
(2) Rs. 210
(3) Rs. 204
(4) Rs. 218
(5) Rs. 212
89. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
6417 5704 4991 4278 3565 2852 ?
(1) 2408
(2) 2426
(3) 7310
(4) 7130
(5) 2139
90. Rinku and Pooja started a business initially with Rs. 5,100 and Rs. 6,600 respectively. If the
total profit is Rs. 2.730 what is Rinku's share in the profit?
(1) Rs. 1,530
(2) Rs. 1,540
(3) Rs. 1,200
(4) Rs. 1,180
(5) None of these
91. 25% of the total cost of a plot of area 280 sq. feet is Rs. 1,32,370. What is the rate per sq. ft. of
the plot?
(1) Rs. 2,091
(2) Rs. 1,981
(3) Rs. 1,991
(4) Rs. 1,891
(5) None of these
92. If the difference between a number and one fifth of it is 84, what is the number?
(1) 95
(2) 100
(3) 105
(4) 108
(5) 112
93. The respective ratio of the ages of Richa and Shelly is 5: 8. The ratio of their ages 10 years
hence would be 7: 10 respectively. What is the present age of Shelly?
(1) 45 years
(2) 40 years
(3) 35 years
(4) 30 years
(5) 25 years
94. A student scores 64% marks in 6 papers of 150 marks each. He scores 25% of his total
obtained marks in Hindi and English together. How much is his total score for both these papers?
(1) 120
(2) 124
(3) 140
(4) 144
(5) 150
95. When the original price of toy was increased by 25%, the price of one dozen toys was Rs. 300.
What was the original price of one toy?
(1) Rs. 24
(2) Rs. 29
(3) Rs. 30
(4) Rs. 15
(5) Rs. 20
96. If 3x + 5y = 44 and 10x -2y = 16, what is the value of x?
(1) 7
(2) 3
(3) 5.5
(4) 6.5
(5) None of these
97. 15 persons complete a job in 3 days. How many days will 10 persons take to complete the
same job?
(1) 2
(2) 5
(3)
(4)
(5)
98. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 25% more than the cost price. If a
customer paid Rs. 11,500 for a television set, then what was the cost price of the television set?
(1) Rs. 9,200
(2) Rs. 7,200
(3) Rs. 8,600
(4) Rs. 9,800
(5) Rs. 10,000
99. Sumit obtained a total of 1012 marks out of 1150 in an examination. What is his percentage in
the examination?
(1) 86
(2) 88
(3) 84
(4) 90
(5) None of these
100. What should replace both the question marks in the following equation?
(1) 126
(2) 124
(3) 130
(4) 132
(5) 136
ANSWERS
51. (3), 52. (2), 53. (1), 54. (1), 55. (1), 56. (3), 57. (4), 58. (4), 59. (2), 60. (1)
61. (5), 62. (5), 63. (2), 64. (3), 65. (2), 66. (4), 67. (1), 68. (3), 69. (1), 70. (4)
71. (4), 72. (2), 73. (5), 74. (3), 75. (3), 76. (3), 77. (4), 78. (1), 79. (2), 80. (2)
81. (5), 82. (5), 83. (1), 84. (4), 85. (4), 86. (1), 87. (3), 88. (3), 89. (5), 90. (5)
91. (4), 92. (3), 93. (2), 94. (4), 95. (5), 96. (2), 97. (5), 98. (1), 99. (2), 100. (1)
questions ?
51. 832.456-539.982-123.321=?
(1) 196.153
(2) 149.153
(3) 169.153
(4) 176.135
(5) None of these
52. ? x 19 = 7828
(1) 411
(2) 412
(3) 413
(4) 414
(5) 415
53. 236.69+356.74 = 393.39 + ?
(1) 200.04
(2) 201.04
(3) 200.14
(4) 202.14
(5) 203.04
54. 734 / ? = 91.75
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 10
(5) None of these
55. x (35 x 15 x 10) / (25 x 2) = ?
(1) 105
(2) 115
(3) 70
(4) 35
(5) None of these
56. 5938+4456+2891 = ?
(1) 15255
(2) 14285
(3) 13285
(4) 12385
(5) None of these
57. 859.05 + 428.89+663.17=?
(1) 1585.91
(2) 1286.94
(3) 1950.02
(4) 1950.11
(5) 1951.01
58. 434 x 645=?
(1) 27840
(2) 297930
(3) 279903
(4) 279930
(5) None of these
59. 7 x ? =29.05
(1) 4.05
(2) 4.15
(3) 3.95
(4) 4.28
(5) None of these
60. 725 / 25 - 13 = ?
(1) 16
(2) 29
(3) 12
(4) 18
(5) None of these
61. (558 x 45) / (18 x 45) = ?
(1) 314
(2) 313
(3) 312
(4) 311
(5) None of these
62. 806 / 26 =?
(1) 30
(2) 32
(3) 34
(4) 36
(5) None of these
63. 559 + 995 = ? x 16
(1) 92.05
(2) 95.25
(3) 93.15
(4) 94.35
(5) None of these
64. ((337 +146) x 8)=?
(1) 3884
(2) 1515
(3) 3864
(4) 1505
(5) 3846
65.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
66. 4758-2782-1430=?
(1) 356
(2) 396
(3) 486
(4) 546
(5) None of these
67. 9.1 x 7.5 x 6.2 =?
(1) 423.25
(2) 68.25
(3) 593.775
(4) 472.5
(5) None of these
68.
(1) 43
(2) 45
(3) 47
(4) 49
(5) 51
69.
(1) 1444
(2) 1442
(3) 1448
(4) 1456
(5) 1460
70.
(1) 25
(2) 64
(3) 8
(4) 7.5
(5) None of these
71. 248 of +110 of 20% = ?
(1) 192
(2) 202
(3) 212
(4) 239
(5) 242
72.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
73.
(1) 1511
(2) 1531
(3) 1515
(4) 1553
(5) 1521
74. 484 of + 366 of = ?
(1) 663
(2) 844
(3) 668
(4) 848
(5) 666
75. 280% of 460 =?
(1) 1188
(2) 1284
(3) 1288
(4) 1280
(5) None of these
76. Which of the following is equal to 30 x 246?
(1) 118 x 13+209 x 42
(2) 174 x 10+222 x 19
(3) 173 x 12+221 x 24
(4) 169 x 16+167 x 50
(5) None of these
77. The cost of 9 kgs. of sugar is Rs. 279. What is the cost of 153 kgs. of sugar?
(1) Rs. 3.377
(2) Rs. 4.473
(3) Rs. 4.377
(4) Rs. 4.743
(5) Rs. 4.347
78. A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph. and reaches its destination in 7 hours. What is the
distance covered by the bus?
(1) 343 km
(2) 283 km
(3) 353 km
(4) 245 km
(5) 340 km
79. th of th of a number is 82. What is the number?
(1) 410
(2) 820
(3) 420
(4) 220
(5) None of these
80. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 20
(2) 21
(3) 22
(4) 23
(5) None of these
81. The sum of three consecutive integers is 39. Which of the following is the largest among the
three?
(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 13
(4) 16
(5) None of these
82. Find the average of the following set of scores:
118, 186, 138, 204, 175, 229
(1) 148
(2) 152
(3) 156
(4) 160
(5) 175
83. A banana costs Rs. 2.25 and an apple costs Rs. 3.00. What will be the total cost of 4 dozen of
bananas and 3 dozen of apples?
(1) Rs. 216
(2) Rs.108
(3) Rs. 189
(4) Rs. 225
(5) Rs. 162
84. How many pieces of 8.6 metres long cloth can be cut out of a length of 455.8 metres cloth?
(1) 43
(2) 48
(3) 55
(4) 53
(5) 62
85. The product of two successive numbers is 3192. What is the smallest number?
(1) 59
(2) 58
(3) 57
(4) 56
(5) None of these
86. What is 184 times 156?
(1) 28704
(2) 29704
(3) 30604
(4) 27604
(5) None of these
87. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
question?
5989 48 11=?
(1) 1375
(2) 1370
(3) 1372
(4) 1368
(5) 1365
88. If an amount of Rs. 15,487 is divided equally among 76 students, approximately how much
amount will each student get?
(1) Rs. 206
(2) Rs. 210
(3) Rs. 204
(4) Rs. 218
(5) Rs. 212
89. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
6417 5704 4991 4278 3565 2852 ?
(1) 2408
(2) 2426
(3) 7310
(4) 7130
(5) 2139
90. Rinku and Pooja started a business initially with Rs. 5,100 and Rs. 6,600 respectively. If the
total profit is Rs. 2.730 what is Rinku's share in the profit?
(1) Rs. 1,530
(2) Rs. 1,540
(3) Rs. 1,200
(4) Rs. 1,180
(5) None of these
91. 25% of the total cost of a plot of area 280 sq. feet is Rs. 1,32,370. What is the rate per sq. ft. of
the plot?
(1) Rs. 2,091
(2) Rs. 1,981
(3) Rs. 1,991
(4) Rs. 1,891
(5) None of these
92. If the difference between a number and one fifth of it is 84, what is the number?
(1) 95
(2) 100
(3) 105
(4) 108
(5) 112
93. The respective ratio of the ages of Richa and Shelly is 5: 8. The ratio of their ages 10 years
hence would be 7: 10 respectively. What is the present age of Shelly?
(1) 45 years
(2) 40 years
(3) 35 years
(4) 30 years
(5) 25 years
94. A student scores 64% marks in 6 papers of 150 marks each. He scores 25% of his total
obtained marks in Hindi and English together. How much is his total score for both these papers?
(1) 120
(2) 124
(3) 140
(4) 144
(5) 150
95. When the original price of toy was increased by 25%, the price of one dozen toys was Rs. 300.
What was the original price of one toy?
(1) Rs. 24
(2) Rs. 29
(3) Rs. 30
(4) Rs. 15
(5) Rs. 20
96. If 3x + 5y = 44 and 10x -2y = 16, what is the value of x?
(1) 7
(2) 3
(3) 5.5
(4) 6.5
(5) None of these
97. 15 persons complete a job in 3 days. How many days will 10 persons take to complete the
same job?
(1) 2
(2) 5
(3)
(4)
(5)
98. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 25% more than the cost price. If a
customer paid Rs. 11,500 for a television set, then what was the cost price of the television set?
(1) Rs. 9,200
(2) Rs. 7,200
(3) Rs. 8,600
(4) Rs. 9,800
(5) Rs. 10,000
99. Sumit obtained a total of 1012 marks out of 1150 in an examination. What is his percentage in
the examination?
(1) 86
(2) 88
(3) 84
(4) 90
(5) None of these
100. What should replace both the question marks in the following equation?
(1) 126
(2) 124
(3) 130
(4) 132
(5) 136
ANSWERS
51. (3), 52. (2), 53. (1), 54. (1), 55. (1), 56. (3), 57. (4), 58. (4), 59. (2), 60. (1)
61. (5), 62. (5), 63. (2), 64. (3), 65. (2), 66. (4), 67. (1), 68. (3), 69. (1), 70. (4)
71. (4), 72. (2), 73. (5), 74. (3), 75. (3), 76. (3), 77. (4), 78. (1), 79. (2), 80. (2)
81. (5), 82. (5), 83. (1), 84. (4), 85. (4), 86. (1), 87. (3), 88. (3), 89. (5), 90. (5)
91. (4), 92. (3), 93. (2), 94. (4), 95. (5), 96. (2), 97. (5), 98. (1), 99. (2), 100. (1)
Andhra Bank Clerk Recruitment: Solved Previous YearQuestion Paper 2007 (IV English)
Directions (151-165): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
For many years, the continent Africa remained unexplored and unknown. The main reason was
the inaccessibility to its interior region due to dense forests, wild -life savage tribals, deserts and
barren solid hills. Many people tried to explore the land could not survive the dangers. David
Living- stone is among those brave few who not only explored part of Africa but also lived among
the tribals bringing them near to social milieu. While others explored with the idea of expanding
their respective empires. Livingstone did so to explore its vast and mysterious hinterland, rivers
and lakes. He was primarily a religious man and a medical practitioner who tried to help
mankind with it.
Livingstone was born in Scotland and was educated to become a doctor and priest. His
exploration started at the beginning of the year 1852. He explored an unknown river in Western
Luanda. However, he was reduced to a skeleton during four years of traveling. By this time, he
had become famous and when he returned to England for convalescing, entire London, along
with Queen Victoria turned to welcome him. After a few days, he returned to Africa.
He discovered the origin of the River Nile in 1866. He again suffered many discomforts. He
became too sick and could not even walk. He lost contact with rest of the world that grew anxious
to know his whereabouts. Ultimately, it was Stanley, the American journalist, who found him
after many efforts, but Livingstone had died in a tribal village in 1873. His body was brought to
London and buried in West-minister with full honour.
151. Livingstone deserves credit for which of the following?
(1) For expanding his empire
(2) For enjoying the wild life of the continent
(3) For exploring part of Africa and living among the tribals
(4) For quenching his thirst for living in the company of nature
(5) None of these
152. What was the impact of four -year travelling on Livingstone?
(1) He could enjoy a social life among tribals' society
(2) He derived satisfaction with the exploration of an unknown river
(3) He derived satisfaction as he became very famous
(4) It badly affected his health
(5) None of these
153. Which of the following shows that Livingstone had become very famous?
(1) Queen Victoria along with the people of London had come to meet him
(2) Queen Victoria arranged for the medical expenses
(3) The tribals were grateful to him for his medical expenses
(4) He was assigned the task of a priest although he was a medical professional
(5) None of these
154. Why were people not aware to the existence of Africa?
(1) It was inaccessible due to oceanic reefs
(2) Its territory was covered with dense forests
(3) People outside the continent were chased away by native tribals
(4) Explorers were afraid of the risks involved
(5) None of these
155. Livingstone can best be described by which of the following?
(1) A person with an urge for exploration of unknown parts of the world
(2) A person with religious mindset
(3) A social reformer
(4) A warmhearted medical practitioner
(5) A famous priest popular among the British
156. Which of the following was/ were explored by Livingstone?
(a) A river in Western Luanda
(b) Scotland
(c) The origin of river Nile
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a) only
(5) (b) only
157. The American journalist Stanley can be credited for which of the following?
(a) Performing the last rites of Livingstone's dead body.
(b) Relentless efforts for finding out the whereabouts of Living stone.
(c) The anxiety to explore undiscovered parts of the world.
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (b) only
(5) (c) only
158. Livingstone became too sick to walk and, as a result
(a) People in the world lost contact with him
(b) His whereabouts were not known.
(c) American journalist, Stanley could not locate him despite many efforts.
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (c) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
(5) None of these
159. In what way Livingstone's exploration efforts were different from those of others?
(1) Livingstone's exploration was restricted only to unknown rivers, whereas others explored dense
forests
(2) Others explored with selfish motives; Livingstone explored to know the mysterious parts of the
world
(3) Others explored new parts of the world for wealth, but Livingstone did so for religious purposes
(4) Being a medical practitioner he tied to explore medicines; others did for tribal population
(5) None of these
Directions (160-162): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
160. REST
(1) remainder
(2) relax
(3) respite
(4) discovery
(5) most
161. EXPLORATION
(1) execution
(2) cultivation
(3) foundation
(4) discovery
(5) assimilation
162. TURNED
(1) rotated
(2) twisted
(3) spinned
(4) revolved
(5) arrived
Directions (163-165): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
163. DENSE
(1) crowed
(2) dark
(3) sparse
(4) transparent
(5) opaque
164. BARREN
(1) uncultivated
(2) fertile
(3) forest
(4) unlevelled
(5) marshy
165. VAST
(1) miniature
(2) magnified
(3) enormous
(4) gigantic
(5) small
Directions (166-175): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If
there is no error, the answer is (5), i.e. 'No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
166. The interrogation made by (1) / him hardly yield (2)/ any concrete conclusion (3)/ about the
crime. (4)/ No error (5)
167. What you had said (1)/ about the employees was (2)/ found to be correct (3)/ but it could not
be proved. (4)/ No error (5)
168. When you had started (1)/ the work, you should (2)/ ensure that you (3)/ concentrate on it.
(4)/ No error (5)
169. If you have good (1)/ control over breathing (2)/ you can float (3)/ on water effortlessly.
(4) /No error (5)
170. The way to the fort (1)/ was too difficult that (2)/ we could not reach (3)/ the farthest point.
(4)/ No error (5)
171. When we heard the name (1)/ of our leader uttered (2)/ respectfully by the foreigners (3)/ we
felt pride of him. (4)/ No error (5)
172. It goes to his credit (1)/that he was a clean man (2)/ in politics as well as (3)/ his person
dealings. (4)/ No error (5)
173. His strictly discipline (1)/ had made him (2)/ very unpopular among (3)/all the employees.
(4)/ No error (5)
174. Jamshedji knew that (1)/ an industrial revolution can (2)/ only brought in the country (3)/ by
setting up iron and steel industry. (4)/ No error (5)
175. He being the oldest son (1)/ has requested us (2)/ to look after the problem (3)/ faced by the
father. (4)/ No error (5)
Directions (176-180): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to
make the sentence meaningfully complete.
176. There is no need of any proof because everything is very________.
(1) obvious
(2) uncertain
(3) definite
(4) regular
(5) essential
177. Onions grow in ____ in this part and hence they are always very cheap here.
(1) demand
(2) abundance
(3) peak
(4) excessive
(5) dearth
178. Normally he is very ______ in his behaviour, but on that occasion he behaved very
aggressively.
(1) rude
(2) obedient
(3) docile
(4) intolerant
(5) immature
179. If you ___ in advance, you will get some concession.
(1) buy
(2) work
(3) submit
(4) pay
(5) decide
180. I have in my album photographs of some of my very close friends __ I can never forget.
(1) that
(2) who
(3) whom
(4) which
(5) those
Directions (181-185): In each question below four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and
(4) have been printed of which, one may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the
answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (5) i.e. "All Correct" as the answer.
181. (1) Discloser
(2) Indifference
(3) Cooperative
(4) Irreversible
(5) All Correct
182. (1) Repetition
(2) Conservative
(3) Acceptability
(4) Innovative
(5) All Correct
183. (1) Vigilant
(2) Judilee
(3) Receptive
(4) Possessive
(5) All Correct
184. (1) Decisive
(2) Destructive
(3) Accommodation
(4) Pioneer
(5) All Correct
185. (1) Compromising
(2) Enthusiasm
(3) Dislocation
(4) Immigration
(5) All Correct
Directions (186-190): Rearrange the following sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) They are not bothered to break rules of the society, laws and even relations.
(b) But one thing is certain. They will one day realize that this importance needs to be shifted.
(c) People are generally ready to go to any extent to possess these materialistic aspects.
(d) All this shift will certainly be in favour of good and socially desirable values.
(e) This is all because of the undue importance attached to these aspects.
(f) Money, comfort, luxuries have dominated all other considerations these days.
186. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
187. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
188. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
189. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
190. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
Directions (191-200): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against, each five words are
suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Dr. Swaminathan is not only a (191) scientist but also an able administrator and an (192)
organiser of projects. He has served the country by (193) many significant positions. His
researches in the field of agriculture and his efforts for (194) the quality of wheat in particular,
have (195) him laurels. Dr. Borlogue has highly (196) his works.
Dr. Swaminathan, is a honorary member of 14 important International Scientific Societies/
Councils including the Royal Society of London. Many Universities have (197) doctorate on him.
In 1972, he was awarded "Padma Bhushan", Dr. Swaminathan (198) in work, not in popularity
and that is the (199) he never came into so much (200).
191. (1) famous
(2) magnificent
(3) decisive
(4) renewed
(5) glorious
192. (1) insecure
(2) absolute
(3) overt
(4) incompetent
(5) efficient
193. (1) creating
(2) developing
(3) encouraging
(4) holding
(5) appointing
194. (1) magnifying
(2) growing
(3) improving
(4) judging
(5) deciding
195. (1) prospered
(2) won
(3) acquired
(4) made
(5) donated
196. (1) analysed
(2) appreciated
(3) cooperated
(4) recommended
(5) curtailed
197. (1) given
(2) registered
(3) conferred
(4) passed
(5) dictated
198. (1) aspires
(2) enjoys
(3) dedicates
(4) believes
(5) continues
199. (1) reason
(2) aim
(3) perspective
(4) way
(5) essence
200. (1) fame
(2) respect
(3) reputation
(4) disregard
(5) limelight
ANSWERS
151. (3), 152. (4), 153. (1), 154. (2), 155. (1), 156. (3), 157. (4), 158. (5), 159. (2), 160. (1)
161. (4), 162. (5), 163. (3), 164. (2), 165. (5), 166. (2), 167. (5), 168. (1), 169. (2), 170. (2)
171. (4), 172. (4), 173. (1), 174. (3), 175. (2), 176. (1), 177. (2), 178. (3), 179. (4), 180. (3)
181. (1), 182. (1), 183. (3), 184. (5), 185. (2), 186. (2), 187. (3), 188. (5), 189. (1), 190. (4)
191. (1), 192. (5), 193. (4), 194. (3), 195. (2), 196. (2), 197. (3), 198. (4), 199. (1), 200. (5)
given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
For many years, the continent Africa remained unexplored and unknown. The main reason was
the inaccessibility to its interior region due to dense forests, wild -life savage tribals, deserts and
barren solid hills. Many people tried to explore the land could not survive the dangers. David
Living- stone is among those brave few who not only explored part of Africa but also lived among
the tribals bringing them near to social milieu. While others explored with the idea of expanding
their respective empires. Livingstone did so to explore its vast and mysterious hinterland, rivers
and lakes. He was primarily a religious man and a medical practitioner who tried to help
mankind with it.
Livingstone was born in Scotland and was educated to become a doctor and priest. His
exploration started at the beginning of the year 1852. He explored an unknown river in Western
Luanda. However, he was reduced to a skeleton during four years of traveling. By this time, he
had become famous and when he returned to England for convalescing, entire London, along
with Queen Victoria turned to welcome him. After a few days, he returned to Africa.
He discovered the origin of the River Nile in 1866. He again suffered many discomforts. He
became too sick and could not even walk. He lost contact with rest of the world that grew anxious
to know his whereabouts. Ultimately, it was Stanley, the American journalist, who found him
after many efforts, but Livingstone had died in a tribal village in 1873. His body was brought to
London and buried in West-minister with full honour.
151. Livingstone deserves credit for which of the following?
(1) For expanding his empire
(2) For enjoying the wild life of the continent
(3) For exploring part of Africa and living among the tribals
(4) For quenching his thirst for living in the company of nature
(5) None of these
152. What was the impact of four -year travelling on Livingstone?
(1) He could enjoy a social life among tribals' society
(2) He derived satisfaction with the exploration of an unknown river
(3) He derived satisfaction as he became very famous
(4) It badly affected his health
(5) None of these
153. Which of the following shows that Livingstone had become very famous?
(1) Queen Victoria along with the people of London had come to meet him
(2) Queen Victoria arranged for the medical expenses
(3) The tribals were grateful to him for his medical expenses
(4) He was assigned the task of a priest although he was a medical professional
(5) None of these
154. Why were people not aware to the existence of Africa?
(1) It was inaccessible due to oceanic reefs
(2) Its territory was covered with dense forests
(3) People outside the continent were chased away by native tribals
(4) Explorers were afraid of the risks involved
(5) None of these
155. Livingstone can best be described by which of the following?
(1) A person with an urge for exploration of unknown parts of the world
(2) A person with religious mindset
(3) A social reformer
(4) A warmhearted medical practitioner
(5) A famous priest popular among the British
156. Which of the following was/ were explored by Livingstone?
(a) A river in Western Luanda
(b) Scotland
(c) The origin of river Nile
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a) only
(5) (b) only
157. The American journalist Stanley can be credited for which of the following?
(a) Performing the last rites of Livingstone's dead body.
(b) Relentless efforts for finding out the whereabouts of Living stone.
(c) The anxiety to explore undiscovered parts of the world.
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (b) only
(5) (c) only
158. Livingstone became too sick to walk and, as a result
(a) People in the world lost contact with him
(b) His whereabouts were not known.
(c) American journalist, Stanley could not locate him despite many efforts.
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (c) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
(5) None of these
159. In what way Livingstone's exploration efforts were different from those of others?
(1) Livingstone's exploration was restricted only to unknown rivers, whereas others explored dense
forests
(2) Others explored with selfish motives; Livingstone explored to know the mysterious parts of the
world
(3) Others explored new parts of the world for wealth, but Livingstone did so for religious purposes
(4) Being a medical practitioner he tied to explore medicines; others did for tribal population
(5) None of these
Directions (160-162): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
160. REST
(1) remainder
(2) relax
(3) respite
(4) discovery
(5) most
161. EXPLORATION
(1) execution
(2) cultivation
(3) foundation
(4) discovery
(5) assimilation
162. TURNED
(1) rotated
(2) twisted
(3) spinned
(4) revolved
(5) arrived
Directions (163-165): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
163. DENSE
(1) crowed
(2) dark
(3) sparse
(4) transparent
(5) opaque
164. BARREN
(1) uncultivated
(2) fertile
(3) forest
(4) unlevelled
(5) marshy
165. VAST
(1) miniature
(2) magnified
(3) enormous
(4) gigantic
(5) small
Directions (166-175): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If
there is no error, the answer is (5), i.e. 'No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
166. The interrogation made by (1) / him hardly yield (2)/ any concrete conclusion (3)/ about the
crime. (4)/ No error (5)
167. What you had said (1)/ about the employees was (2)/ found to be correct (3)/ but it could not
be proved. (4)/ No error (5)
168. When you had started (1)/ the work, you should (2)/ ensure that you (3)/ concentrate on it.
(4)/ No error (5)
169. If you have good (1)/ control over breathing (2)/ you can float (3)/ on water effortlessly.
(4) /No error (5)
170. The way to the fort (1)/ was too difficult that (2)/ we could not reach (3)/ the farthest point.
(4)/ No error (5)
171. When we heard the name (1)/ of our leader uttered (2)/ respectfully by the foreigners (3)/ we
felt pride of him. (4)/ No error (5)
172. It goes to his credit (1)/that he was a clean man (2)/ in politics as well as (3)/ his person
dealings. (4)/ No error (5)
173. His strictly discipline (1)/ had made him (2)/ very unpopular among (3)/all the employees.
(4)/ No error (5)
174. Jamshedji knew that (1)/ an industrial revolution can (2)/ only brought in the country (3)/ by
setting up iron and steel industry. (4)/ No error (5)
175. He being the oldest son (1)/ has requested us (2)/ to look after the problem (3)/ faced by the
father. (4)/ No error (5)
Directions (176-180): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to
make the sentence meaningfully complete.
176. There is no need of any proof because everything is very________.
(1) obvious
(2) uncertain
(3) definite
(4) regular
(5) essential
177. Onions grow in ____ in this part and hence they are always very cheap here.
(1) demand
(2) abundance
(3) peak
(4) excessive
(5) dearth
178. Normally he is very ______ in his behaviour, but on that occasion he behaved very
aggressively.
(1) rude
(2) obedient
(3) docile
(4) intolerant
(5) immature
179. If you ___ in advance, you will get some concession.
(1) buy
(2) work
(3) submit
(4) pay
(5) decide
180. I have in my album photographs of some of my very close friends __ I can never forget.
(1) that
(2) who
(3) whom
(4) which
(5) those
Directions (181-185): In each question below four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and
(4) have been printed of which, one may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the
answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (5) i.e. "All Correct" as the answer.
181. (1) Discloser
(2) Indifference
(3) Cooperative
(4) Irreversible
(5) All Correct
182. (1) Repetition
(2) Conservative
(3) Acceptability
(4) Innovative
(5) All Correct
183. (1) Vigilant
(2) Judilee
(3) Receptive
(4) Possessive
(5) All Correct
184. (1) Decisive
(2) Destructive
(3) Accommodation
(4) Pioneer
(5) All Correct
185. (1) Compromising
(2) Enthusiasm
(3) Dislocation
(4) Immigration
(5) All Correct
Directions (186-190): Rearrange the following sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) They are not bothered to break rules of the society, laws and even relations.
(b) But one thing is certain. They will one day realize that this importance needs to be shifted.
(c) People are generally ready to go to any extent to possess these materialistic aspects.
(d) All this shift will certainly be in favour of good and socially desirable values.
(e) This is all because of the undue importance attached to these aspects.
(f) Money, comfort, luxuries have dominated all other considerations these days.
186. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
187. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
188. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
189. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
190. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
Directions (191-200): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against, each five words are
suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Dr. Swaminathan is not only a (191) scientist but also an able administrator and an (192)
organiser of projects. He has served the country by (193) many significant positions. His
researches in the field of agriculture and his efforts for (194) the quality of wheat in particular,
have (195) him laurels. Dr. Borlogue has highly (196) his works.
Dr. Swaminathan, is a honorary member of 14 important International Scientific Societies/
Councils including the Royal Society of London. Many Universities have (197) doctorate on him.
In 1972, he was awarded "Padma Bhushan", Dr. Swaminathan (198) in work, not in popularity
and that is the (199) he never came into so much (200).
191. (1) famous
(2) magnificent
(3) decisive
(4) renewed
(5) glorious
192. (1) insecure
(2) absolute
(3) overt
(4) incompetent
(5) efficient
193. (1) creating
(2) developing
(3) encouraging
(4) holding
(5) appointing
194. (1) magnifying
(2) growing
(3) improving
(4) judging
(5) deciding
195. (1) prospered
(2) won
(3) acquired
(4) made
(5) donated
196. (1) analysed
(2) appreciated
(3) cooperated
(4) recommended
(5) curtailed
197. (1) given
(2) registered
(3) conferred
(4) passed
(5) dictated
198. (1) aspires
(2) enjoys
(3) dedicates
(4) believes
(5) continues
199. (1) reason
(2) aim
(3) perspective
(4) way
(5) essence
200. (1) fame
(2) respect
(3) reputation
(4) disregard
(5) limelight
ANSWERS
151. (3), 152. (4), 153. (1), 154. (2), 155. (1), 156. (3), 157. (4), 158. (5), 159. (2), 160. (1)
161. (4), 162. (5), 163. (3), 164. (2), 165. (5), 166. (2), 167. (5), 168. (1), 169. (2), 170. (2)
171. (4), 172. (4), 173. (1), 174. (3), 175. (2), 176. (1), 177. (2), 178. (3), 179. (4), 180. (3)
181. (1), 182. (1), 183. (3), 184. (5), 185. (2), 186. (2), 187. (3), 188. (5), 189. (1), 190. (4)
191. (1), 192. (5), 193. (4), 194. (3), 195. (2), 196. (2), 197. (3), 198. (4), 199. (1), 200. (5)
(Paper) SBI Clerk Latest Reasoning Ability (SET - 2)
1.Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question mark
(?)
1 2 3 2 10 12
2 5 12 10 16 13
1 2 1 ? 10 24
(a) 5 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 8
Ans (c)
2. Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question
mark (?)
3 8 10 2 ? 1
6 56 90 2 20 0
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
Ans (c)
3.In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
11, 5, 20, 12, 40, 26, 74, 54
(a) 5 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 26
Ans (c)
4. In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386
(a) 14 (b) 48 (c) 98 (d) 194
Ans (b)
5. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) - 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
CHANGE
(a) 77 (b) 79 (c) 83 (d) 80
Ans (d)
6. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) - 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
FLUTE
(a) 153 (b) 157 (c) 151 (d) 149
Ans (a)
7. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) - 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
BREAD
(a) 67 (b) 62 (c) 59 (d) 65
Ans (d)
8. In a certain code language, '3a, 2b, 7c' means 'Truth is Eternal'; '7c, 9a, 8b, 3a' means 'Enmity is not
Eternal' and 6a, 4d, 2b, 8b' means 'Truth does not perish'. Which of the following means 'enmity' in that
language?
(a) 3a (b) 7c (c) 8b (d) 9a
Ans (d)
9. In a certain code language, 'po ki top ma' means 'Usha is playing cards'; 'Kop ja ki ma' means 'Asha
is playing tennis'; ki top sop ho' means 'they are playing football'; and 'po sur kop' means 'cards and
tennis'. Which word in that language means 'Asha'?
(a) ja (b) ma (c) kop (d) top
Ans (a)
10. A girl was born on September 6, 1970, which happened to be a Sunday. Her birthday has again fall
on Sunday in
(a) 1975 (b) 1976 (c) 1977 (d) 1981
Ans (d)
11. A long rope has to be cut to make 23 small pieces. If it is double folded to start with how many
times does it need to be cut?
(a) 9 (b) 23 (c) 11 (d) 12
Ans (c)
12. There are 19 hockey players in a club. On a particular day 14 were wearing the hockey shirts
prescribed, while 11 were wearing the prescribed hockey pants. None of them was without either
hockey pants or hockey shirts. How many were in complete hockey uniform?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 7
Ans (b)
13. In a class room three fourth of the boys are above 160 cm in height and they are 18 in number. Also
out of the total strength, the boys form only two third and the rest are girls. The total number of girls in
the class is
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 12 (d) 30
Ans (c)
14. 'A' is east of 'B' and west of 'C'. 'H' is South-West of 'C', 'B' is South-East of 'X'. which is farthest
West?
(a) C (b) A (c) X (d) B
Ans (c)
15. A girl earns twice as much in December as in each of the other months. What part of her entire
year's earning does she earn in December?
(a) 2/11 (b) 2/13 (c) 3/14 (d) 1/6
Ans (b)
16. One watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 pm on Thursday. When did
it show the correct time?
(a) 1.00 am on Wednesday (b) 5.00 am on Wednesday (c) 1.00 pm on Wednesday (d) 5.00 pm on
Wednesday
Directions (Question 17 to 22) :Given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is
implicit in the statement.
Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit
Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit
Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit
17.Statement: Even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in India. We still continue to
import sugar.
Assumptions :I. The consumption of sugar per capita has increased in India.
II. Many of the factories are not in a position to produce sugar to their fullest capacity.
Ans (c)
18.Statement :I cannot contact you on phone from Karshik.
Assumption : I. Telephone facility is not available at Karshik.
II. Nowadays it is difficult to contact on phone.
Ans (b)
19.Statement : The government has decided to reduce the custom duty on computer peripherals.
Assumptions : I. The domestic market price of computer peripherals may go up in near future.
II. the domestic manufacturers may oppose the decision.
Ans (a)
20. Statement : In Bombay, railway trains are indispensable for people in the suburbs to reach their
places of work on time.
Assumptions : I. Railway trains are the only mode of transport available in the suburbs of Bombay.
II. Only railway trains run punctually.
Ans (a)
21. Statement :The private bus services in the city has virtually collapsed because of the ongoing strike
of its employees.
Assumptions : I. Going on strikes has become the right of every employee.
II. People no more require the services of private bus operators.
Ans (b)
22. Statement : Detergents should be used. to clean clothes.
Assumptions : I. Detergents from more lather.
II. Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt.
Ans (d)
23. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
A D H
F I M
? N R
(a) P (b) N (c) K (c) O
Ans (c)
24. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
A M B N
R C S D
E U F ?
(a) T (b) F (c) V (d) R
Ans (c)
25. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
1 4 9 ?
1 2 3 4
2 4 6 ?
(a) 16 and 8 (b) 36 and 4 (c) 25 and 5 (d) 49 and 7
Ans (a)
26. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
6 6 8
5 7 5
4 3 ?
120 126 320
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 4
Ans (c)
27. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. Many scooters are trucks. II. All trucks are trains
Conclusions: I. Some scooters are trains. II. No truck is a scooter.
Ans (a)
28. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. All cars are cats. II. All fans are cats.
Conclusions: I. All cars are fans. II. Some fans are cars.
Ans (d)
29. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. All pilots are experts. II. All authors are pilots.
Conclusions: I. All authors are experts. II. No expert in an author.
Ans (a)
30.In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. Some doctors are institutes. II. Some crooks are institutes.
Conclusions: I. All institutes are doctors. II. Some institutes are crooks.
Ans (b)
(?)
1 2 3 2 10 12
2 5 12 10 16 13
1 2 1 ? 10 24
(a) 5 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 8
Ans (c)
2. Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question
mark (?)
3 8 10 2 ? 1
6 56 90 2 20 0
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
Ans (c)
3.In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
11, 5, 20, 12, 40, 26, 74, 54
(a) 5 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 26
Ans (c)
4. In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386
(a) 14 (b) 48 (c) 98 (d) 194
Ans (b)
5. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) - 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
CHANGE
(a) 77 (b) 79 (c) 83 (d) 80
Ans (d)
6. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) - 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
FLUTE
(a) 153 (b) 157 (c) 151 (d) 149
Ans (a)
7. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) - 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
BREAD
(a) 67 (b) 62 (c) 59 (d) 65
Ans (d)
8. In a certain code language, '3a, 2b, 7c' means 'Truth is Eternal'; '7c, 9a, 8b, 3a' means 'Enmity is not
Eternal' and 6a, 4d, 2b, 8b' means 'Truth does not perish'. Which of the following means 'enmity' in that
language?
(a) 3a (b) 7c (c) 8b (d) 9a
Ans (d)
9. In a certain code language, 'po ki top ma' means 'Usha is playing cards'; 'Kop ja ki ma' means 'Asha
is playing tennis'; ki top sop ho' means 'they are playing football'; and 'po sur kop' means 'cards and
tennis'. Which word in that language means 'Asha'?
(a) ja (b) ma (c) kop (d) top
Ans (a)
10. A girl was born on September 6, 1970, which happened to be a Sunday. Her birthday has again fall
on Sunday in
(a) 1975 (b) 1976 (c) 1977 (d) 1981
Ans (d)
11. A long rope has to be cut to make 23 small pieces. If it is double folded to start with how many
times does it need to be cut?
(a) 9 (b) 23 (c) 11 (d) 12
Ans (c)
12. There are 19 hockey players in a club. On a particular day 14 were wearing the hockey shirts
prescribed, while 11 were wearing the prescribed hockey pants. None of them was without either
hockey pants or hockey shirts. How many were in complete hockey uniform?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 7
Ans (b)
13. In a class room three fourth of the boys are above 160 cm in height and they are 18 in number. Also
out of the total strength, the boys form only two third and the rest are girls. The total number of girls in
the class is
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 12 (d) 30
Ans (c)
14. 'A' is east of 'B' and west of 'C'. 'H' is South-West of 'C', 'B' is South-East of 'X'. which is farthest
West?
(a) C (b) A (c) X (d) B
Ans (c)
15. A girl earns twice as much in December as in each of the other months. What part of her entire
year's earning does she earn in December?
(a) 2/11 (b) 2/13 (c) 3/14 (d) 1/6
Ans (b)
16. One watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 pm on Thursday. When did
it show the correct time?
(a) 1.00 am on Wednesday (b) 5.00 am on Wednesday (c) 1.00 pm on Wednesday (d) 5.00 pm on
Wednesday
Directions (Question 17 to 22) :Given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is
implicit in the statement.
Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit
Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit
Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit
17.Statement: Even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in India. We still continue to
import sugar.
Assumptions :I. The consumption of sugar per capita has increased in India.
II. Many of the factories are not in a position to produce sugar to their fullest capacity.
Ans (c)
18.Statement :I cannot contact you on phone from Karshik.
Assumption : I. Telephone facility is not available at Karshik.
II. Nowadays it is difficult to contact on phone.
Ans (b)
19.Statement : The government has decided to reduce the custom duty on computer peripherals.
Assumptions : I. The domestic market price of computer peripherals may go up in near future.
II. the domestic manufacturers may oppose the decision.
Ans (a)
20. Statement : In Bombay, railway trains are indispensable for people in the suburbs to reach their
places of work on time.
Assumptions : I. Railway trains are the only mode of transport available in the suburbs of Bombay.
II. Only railway trains run punctually.
Ans (a)
21. Statement :The private bus services in the city has virtually collapsed because of the ongoing strike
of its employees.
Assumptions : I. Going on strikes has become the right of every employee.
II. People no more require the services of private bus operators.
Ans (b)
22. Statement : Detergents should be used. to clean clothes.
Assumptions : I. Detergents from more lather.
II. Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt.
Ans (d)
23. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
A D H
F I M
? N R
(a) P (b) N (c) K (c) O
Ans (c)
24. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
A M B N
R C S D
E U F ?
(a) T (b) F (c) V (d) R
Ans (c)
25. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
1 4 9 ?
1 2 3 4
2 4 6 ?
(a) 16 and 8 (b) 36 and 4 (c) 25 and 5 (d) 49 and 7
Ans (a)
26. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
6 6 8
5 7 5
4 3 ?
120 126 320
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 4
Ans (c)
27. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. Many scooters are trucks. II. All trucks are trains
Conclusions: I. Some scooters are trains. II. No truck is a scooter.
Ans (a)
28. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. All cars are cats. II. All fans are cats.
Conclusions: I. All cars are fans. II. Some fans are cars.
Ans (d)
29. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. All pilots are experts. II. All authors are pilots.
Conclusions: I. All authors are experts. II. No expert in an author.
Ans (a)
30.In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. Some doctors are institutes. II. Some crooks are institutes.
Conclusions: I. All institutes are doctors. II. Some institutes are crooks.
Ans (b)
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